Certified Wireless Network Administrator CWNA-109 Exam Dumps

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CWNA-109
Exam Name: Certified Wireless Network Administrator
Full version: 770 Q&As
Full version of CWNA-109 Dumps
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1. Which of the following technologies was optional in 802.11n and now mandatory in
802.11ac?
A. MIMO
B. RIFS
C. A-MPDU
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https://www.certqueen.com/CWNA-109.html
D. A-MSDU
E. SU-MIMO
Answer: C
2. Which of the following is the responsibility of the Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)?
A. Request for Comments (RFCs)
B. 802 standards
C. Wi-Fi CERTIFIED standards
D. Regulatory domain authority rules
Answer: A
3. In which plane of the three networking planes is an access point configured by a WLAN
controller?
A. Control
B. Management
C. Security
D. Data
Answer: B
4. Which 802.11 service set defines mechanisms for mesh networking?
A. BSS
B. DSSS
C. ESS
D. MBSS
E. IBSS
Answer: D
5. In addition to throughput enhancements, what other improvements does a dual-band
802.11ac AP provide when compared with 802.11a/g APs? (Choose 2)
A. Introduces “fast transition” roaming protocols for VoWiFi phones
B. Better link reliability between 802.11a/b/g client devices and 802.11ac APs
C. Improves service quality for real-time applications at greater distances
D. Increases in receive sensitivity enhance RTLS location accuracy
E. Stronger security with more robust encryption modes.
Answer: BC
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6. __________ is the measurement of how broad or narrow the focus of an antenna is.
A. Radiation envelopes
B. Static beamforming
C. Transmit beamforming
D. Beamwidth
Answer: D
7. What are some of the security capabilities found in an enterprise WLAN router that is typically
deployed in remote branch locations? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Integrated WIPS server
B. Integrated VPN server
C. Integrated NAC server
D. Integrated firewall
E. Integrated VPN client
Answer: DE
8. A non-802.11 device is suspected of causing interference on the WLAN. You are not certain
of the location or type of device.
What is the best solution for locating this non-802.11 device?
A. Access point spectrum analyzer
B. Laptop-based spectrum analyzer with an omni-directional antenna
C. Laptop-based spectrum analyzer with an omni-directional antenna
D. Laptop-based spectrum analyzer with a directional antenna
Answer: D
9. Wi-Fi CERTIFIED 6 certifies the operation and capabilities of which 802.11 wireless
standard? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.1X
D. 802.11ay
Answer: B
10. When the Wi-Fi network is the actual source of a connectivity, security, or performance
problem, which WLAN device is usually where the problem resides?
A. WLAN controller
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B. Access point
C. WLAN client
D. Wireless network management server
Answer: C
11. ____________ antennas radiate RF signals in all directions.
A. Omnidirectional
B. Semidirectional
C. Patch antenna
D. Highly directional
Answer: A
12. What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes through a medium of a
varying density from that of free space?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C
13. An 802.11n (HT) network can operate on which frequency bands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 902C928 MHz
B. 2.4C2.4835 GHz
C. 5.15C5.25 GHz
D. 5.47C5.725 GHz
Answer: BCD
14. Select two components that should be mandatory in every remote access wireless security
policy.
A. Encrypted VPN
B. 802.1X/EAP
C. Personal firewall
D. Captive portal
E. Wireless stun gun
Answer: AC
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15. __________ uses very little bandwidth to transmit the data that it is carrying.
A. Multipath Interference
B. Spread Spectrum
C. Hopping Sequence
D. Narrowband
Answer: D
16. Why would a WLAN network administrator consider disabling the two lowest rates on an
802.11b/g/n access point? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Medium contention
B. Adjacent channel interference
C. Hidden node
D. Intersymbol interference
E. All of the above
Answer: AC
17. The Wi-Fi Alliance is responsible for which of the following certification programs?
A. 802.11i
B. WEP
C. 802.11-2012
D. WMM
E. PSK
Answer: D
18. Which protocols are used to transport 802.11 frames between a controller-based AP and a
WLAN controller? (Choose all that apply.)
A. GRE
B. CCMP
C. Mobile IP
D. CAPWAP
E. Proprietary IP tunneling protocols
F. All of the above
Answer: ADE
19. How is throughput capacity scaled in a single channel architecture (SCA) WLAN system?
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A. By increasing transmit power and placing APs that are on a single channel farther from one
another.
B. By adding more SSIDs to existing APs to spread users across different contention domains.
C. By adding non-overlapping channel layers through the addition of more APs.
D. By using downlink data compression and uplink flow control at the AP.
E. By using a single 802.11n radio to transmit simultaneous downlink data streams to different
users.
Answer: C
20. Given: Wi-Fi clients can roam seamlessly at layer 2 if all the APs are configured with the
same SSID and same security settings. However, if clients cross layer 3 boundaries, a layer 3
roaming solution will be needed.
Which device functions as the home agent if a Mobile IP solution has been implemented in an
enterprise WLAN environment where no WLAN controller is deployed?
A. Wireless network management server (WNMS)
B. Access layer switch
C. Layer 3 switch
D. Access point on the original subnet
E. Access point on the new subnet
Answer: D
21. Name the necessary calculations for an outdoor bridging survey under 5 miles. (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Link budget
B. Free space path loss
C. Fresnel zone
D. Fade margin adjustment
E. Height of the antenna beamwidth
Answer: ABCD
22. Semidirectional antennas are often used for which of the following purposes? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Providing short-distance point-to-point communications
B. Providing long-distance point-to-point communications
C. Providing unidirectional coverage from an access point to clients in an indoor environment
D. Reducing reflections and the negative effects of multipath
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Answer: ACD
23. What is always required to establish a high quality 2.4 GHz RF link at a distance of 3 miles
(5 kilometers)?
A. Minimum output power level of 2 W
B. Accurate Earth Bulge calculations
C. Grid antennas at each endpoint
D. A minimum antenna gain of 11 dBi at both endpoints
E. A Fresnel Zone that is at least 60% clear of obstructions
Answer: E
24. Which of the following is not an example of an RF signal?
A. Infrared
B. AM \ FM
C. Sound waves
D. X-Rays
Answer: C
25. What is the final step in an effective troubleshooting process?
A. Disable the WLAN
B. Verify the solution
C. Notify the users of problem resolution
D. Document the results
Answer: D
26. Which of the following terms are affiliated with the virtual carrier sense mechanism?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Contention window
B. Network allocation vector
C. Random backoff time
D. Duration/ID field
Answer: BD
27. Name some of the factors that a modulation and coding scheme (MCS) uses to define data
rates for a VHT radio? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Modulation method
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B. Equal/unequal modulation
C. Number of spatial streams
D. GI
E. Channel size
Answer: ABCDE
28. When either DL-OFDMA or UL-OFDMA is employed, what is the purpose of a Wi-Fi 6 AP
sending a multi-user request-to-send (MU-RTS) frame? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Reserve the RF medium
B. Contend for the RF medium
C. Resource unit allocation
D. Scheduled TWT
E. Intra-BSS deferral
Answer: AC
29. With a WLAN infrastructure, where can the guest captive web portal operate? (Choose the
best answer.)
A. AP
B. WLAN controller
C. Third-party server
D. All of the aboveAnswer: D
30. You are designing an 802.3at-compliant network and are installing a 24-port Ethernet switch
to support 10 Class 1 VoIP phones and 10 Class 0 APs.
The switch requires 500 watts to perform its basic switching functions.
How much total power will be needed?
A. 500 watts
B. 694 watts
C. 808 watts
D. 1,000 watts
Answer: B
31. When you're designing a wireless policy document, what two major areas of policy should
be addressed?
A. General policy
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B. Functional policy
C. Rogue AP policy
D. Authentication policy
E. Physical security
Answer: AB
32. Which of the following information is included in a probe response frame? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Time stamp
B. Supported data rates
C. Service set capabilities
D. SSID
E. Traffic indication map
Answer: ABCD
33. Which radio formats can be used by 802.11 technology?
A. CF
B. Secure Digital
C. PCMCIA
D. Mini PCI
E. Express Card
F. Proprietary
G. All of the above
Answer: G
34. What advantages does using predictive site survey modeling software offer over performing
a manual site survey? (Choose 2)
A. Predictive modeling software can predict the ideal access point location 100% of the time,
whereas the results from manual surveying are less reliable.
B. Predictive modeling software makes it simple to assess multiple different AP locations and
then adjust and display the AP’s expected coverage pattern in almost real-time.
C. Predictive modeling software provides more reliable data than manual surveys when fine-
tuning and validating access point placement after the installation.
D. The exact impact of interference sources from external networks can be more accurately
measured when using predictive modeling software than with manual surveys.
E. It takes less time to create an initial site survey for a large facility when using predictive
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modeling software than when performing a manual survey.
Answer: BE
35. What term best describes the bulk of the data generated on the Internet being created by
sensors, monitors, and machines?
A. Wearables
B. Cloud-enabled networking (CEN)
C. Cloud-based networking (CBN)
D. Software as a service (SaaS)
E. Internet of Things (IoT)
Answer: E
36. When installing a higher-gain omnidirectional antenna, which of the following occurs?
(Choose two.)
A. The horizontal coverage increases.
B. The horizontal coverage decreases.
C. The vertical coverage increases.
D. The vertical coverage decreases.
Answer: AD
37. Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for a company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but the company insists on a
predeployment site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive
survey? (Choose 2)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference
sources, if any are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents
are consistent with the actual building.
C. Test several antenna types connected to the intended APs for use in the eventual
deployment.
D. Collect information about the company’s security requirements and the current configuration
of their RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Install at least one AP on each side of the exterior walls to test for co-channel interference
through these walls.
Answer: AB
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38. After conducting a simple site survey in the office building where your company is located on
the fifth floor, you have discovered that other businesses are also operating access points on
nearby floors on channels 2 and 8.
What is the best recommendation you will make to management about deploying a new WLAN
for your company?
A. Install a 2.4 GHz access point on channel 6 and use the highest available transmit power
setting to overpower the WLANs of the other businesses.
B. Speak with the other businesses. Suggest that they use channels 1 and 6 at lower power
settings. Install a 2.4 GHz access point using channel 9.
C. Speak with the other businesses. Suggest that they use channels 1 and 11 at lower power
settings. Install a 2.4 GHz access point using channel 6.
D. Recommend installing a 5 GHz access point.
E. Install a wireless intrusion prevention system (WIPS). Classify the other businesses' access
points as interfering and implement deauthentication countermeasures.
Answer: D
39. A wireless bridge is configured to transmit at 100 mW. The antenna cable and connectors
produce a 3 dB loss and are connected to a 16 dBi antenna.
What is the EIRP?
A. 20 mW
B. 30 dBm
C. 2,000 mW
D. 36 dBm
E. 8 W
Answer: C
40. Antenna manufacturers create ________ charts and elevation charts, commonly known as
radiation patterns, for their antennas.
A. Azimuth
B. Relation
C. Kizmit
D. Distance
Answer: A
41. You are troubleshooting a client problem with a 2.4 GHz WLAN connection. The client is
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experiencing surprisingly low data rates during the work day. You analyze the workspace
outside of business hours and detect a strong signal with a typical noise floor at the client
location.
During working hours, the user works with a laptop in the area and uses an external USB hard
drive for continuous data access. The user also states that the laptop works as expected on her
home network. The user working approximately 8 feet away from this client experiences no
problems.
Based on this information, what is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The AP is overloaded during the work day
B. The drivers in the laptop are corrupt
C. The laptop has a failing wireless adapter
D. The external hard drive is USB 3.0 and is causing a significant increase in the noise floor
when in use
Answer: D
42. You are implementing a VHT-capable AP.
Which one of the following channels is available in the 802.11ac amendment to the
802.11-2012 standard, which was not available in the standard before this amendment?
A. 153
B. 144
C. 161
D. 56
E. 48
Answer: B
43. ACK and CTS frames follow which interframe space?
A. EIFS
B. DIFS
C. PIFS
D. SIFS
E. AIFS
Answer: D
44. You are designing an 802.3at-capable network and are installing a 24-port Ethernet switch
to support 10 Class 2 cameras and 10 Class 3 APs.
The switch requires 1,000 watts to perform its basic switching functions.
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How much total power will be needed?
A. 1,080 watts
B. 1,224 watts
C. 1,308 watts
D. 1,500 watts
Answer: B
45. If a classification signature is not provided, the device is considered to be in what class?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
E. 4
Answer: A
46. What are the advantages of using unlicensed frequency bands for RF transmissions?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. There are no government regulations.
B. There is no additional financial cost.
C. Anyone can use the frequency band.
D. There are no rules.
Answer: BC
47. Which 802.11ac technology is the most revolutionary?
A. 80 MHz and 160 MHz channel widths
B. A-MPDU for all frames
C. 256-QAM modulation
D. 5 GHz only frequencies
E. MU-MIMO
F. Explicit beamforming
Answer: E
48. The 802.11-2012 standard using an ERP-DSSS/CCK radio supports which data rates?
A. 3, 6, and 12 Mbps
B. 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps
C. 6, 12, 24, and 54 Mbps
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D. 6, 12, and 24 Mbps
E. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps
Answer: E
49. What can be done to fix the hidden node problem? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Increase the power on the access point.
B. Move the hidden node station.
C. Increase power on all client stations.
D. Remove the obstacle.
E. Decrease power on the hidden node station.
Answer: BCD
50. A 3×3:2 MIMO radio can transmit and receive how many unique streams of data?
A. Two.
B. Three.
C. Four.
D. Three equal and four unequal streams.
E. None?the streamsare not unique data.
Answer: A
51. Which of the following are valid ISM bands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 902 MHz ? 928 MHz
B. 2.4 GHz ? 2.5 GHz
C. 5.725 GHz ? 5.85 GHz
D. 5.725 GHz ? 5.875 GHz
Answer: ABD
52. What can an impedance mismatch in the RF cables and connectors cause?
A. Fewer MCS values in the MCS table
B. Excessive VSWR
C. Increased amplitude of the RF signal
D. Increased range of the RF signal
Answer: B
53. What security option for 802.11 networks supports SAE and requires protected
management frames?
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A. WPA
B. WPA2
C. WPA3
D. OWE
Answer: C
54. What factors will have the most significant impact on the amount of wireless bandwidth
available to each station within a BSS? (Choose 2)
A. The number of client stations associated to the BSS
B. The power management settings in the access point’s beacons
C. The presence of co-located (10m away) access points on non-overlapping channels
D. The data rates at which nearby client stations are transmitting and receiving data
E. The layer 3 protocol used by each station to transmit data over the wireless link
Answer: AD
55. If an 802.3at-compliant AP is equipped with two radios and requires 7.5 watts of power, how
much power will the PSE provide to it?
A. 7.5 watts
B. 10.1 watts
C. 15 watts
D. 15.4 watts
E. 30.0 watts
Answer: D
56. Which of the following are examples of mobile office networking? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Construction-site offices
B. Temporary disaster-assistance office
C. Remote sales office
D. Temporary classrooms
Answer: ABD
57. You are managing a wireless access point in autonomous mode using the Web based
interface. You capture traffic during this management task and notice that you can see the
HTML code of the Web pages used for access point management.
What error in administration could be the cause of this security concern?
A. IPsec is not in use of the management connection as recommended
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B. A VPN with the AP is not established
C. WPA2 is disabled on the WLAN
D. HTTP is in use instead of HTTPS
Answer: D
58. If PCF is implemented, it can function in which of the following network environments?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Ad hoc mode
B. BSS
C. IBSS
D. Infrastructure mode
E. BSA
Answer: BD
59. What are the names of the two additional U-NII bands proposed by the FCC that provide for
195 MHz of additional spectrum at 5 GHz? (Choose all that apply.)
A. U-NII-1
B. U-NII-2A
C. U-NII-2B
D. U-NII-2C
E. U-NII-3
F. U-NII-4
Answer: CF
60. A standard measurement of frequency is called what?
A. Hertz
B. Milliwatt
C. Nanosecond
D. Decibel
E. K-f actor
Answer: A
61. The ACME Company is using WPA2-Personal to secure IoT devices that are not capable of
802.1X/EAP authentication. Because an employee was recently fired, all of the company
wireless IoT devices and APs had to be reconfigured with a new static 64-bit PSK.
What type of WLAN security solution may have avoided this administrative headache?
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A. MAC filter
B. Hidden SSID
C. Changing the default settings
D. Per-device, per-user PSK
Answer: D
62. In an 802.11n WLAN with a heterogeneous set of associated client devices including
802.11b, 11g, and 11n, what HT protection mode will the BSS use?
A. Mode 0: No protection mode (Greenfield)
B. Mode 1: Nonmember protection mode
C. Mode 2: 20 MHz protection mode
D. Mode 3: Non-HT mixed mode
Answer: D
63. Which potential regional weather conditions can adversely affect an outdoor wireless bridge
link and should be noted during an outdoor site survey? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Lightning
B. Dew point
C. Wind
D. Cloud cover
E. Thunder
Answer: AC
64. What three main components constitute an 802.1X/EAP framework? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Supplicant
B. Authorizer
C. Authentication server
D. Intentional radiator
E. Authenticator
Answer: ACE
65. What is the maximum power draw of an 802.3at PD?
A. 12.95 watts
B. 15 watts
C. 7.4 watts
D. 25.5 watts
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E. 30 watts
Answer: D
66. In a multiple-channel architecture, roaming is controlled by the client station and occurs
based on a set of proprietary rules determined by the manufacturer of the wireless radio.
Which of the following parameters are often used when making the decision to roam? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. Received signal level
B. Distance
C. SNR
D. WMM access categories
Answer: AC
67. Select two solutions that can help mitigate peer-to-peer attacks from other clients associated
to the same 802.11 access point.
A. Personal firewall
B. Client isolation
C. OSPF
D. MAC filter
Answer: AB
68. Which spread spectrum technology specifies data rates of 22 Mbps and 33 Mbps?
A. DSSS
B. ERP-PBCC
C. OFDM
D. PPtP
Answer: B
69. As a consultant, you’ve been hired by XYZ Company to provide recommendations about
client device selection, operation, and interoperability.
What information should be considered to help them choose the right WLAN client devices?
A. 802.11n OFDM is more susceptible to high-power, narrowband interference than 802.11a
B. In order to earn Wi-Fi Alliance certification, 802.11n clients stations are required to support
both 2.4 and 5 GHz frequencies
C. 802.11ac devices support the features of the VHT PHY only in the 5 GHz frequency band.
D. 802.11ac is not backwardly compatible with 802.11n or 802.11a.
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E. When HR/DSSS devices are present, VHT MCS rates are disabled for the entire BSS.
Answer: C
70. ABC Company performs government contract work that requires disabling WLANs and has
recently purchased an 802.11 Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) to enforce their
“NO WIRELESS” network security policy.
What attack type cannot be recognized by the WIPS?
A. Deauthentication
B. Rogue APs installation
C. Layer 3 DoS
D. Packet capturing
E. RF jamming
Answer: D
71. You are using a site survey tool for post-implementation validation. You have installed the
appropriate adapter driver and imported a floor plan. Now, you want to take the next step in
proper tool use.
What must you do before gathering survey data after the floor plan is imported?
A. Calibrate the floor plan
B. Install WinPCAP
C. Nothing, you can simply start capturing signal readings
D. Install iPerf
Answer: A
72. During the interview process, which topics will be discussed so that the WLAN will integrate
properly into the existing wired architecture?
A. PoE
B. Segmentation
C. User management
D. Infrastructure management
E. All of the above
Answer: E
73. The presence of what type of transmissions can trigger the protection mechanism within an
ERP basic service set? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Association of an HR-DSSS client
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B. Association of an ERP-OFDM client
C. HR-DSSS beacon frame
D. ERP beacon frame with the NonERP_Present bit set to 1
E. Association of an FHSS client
Answer: ACD
74. Which phrase best describes a policy of permitting employees to connect personally owned
mobile devices, such as smartphones, tablets, and laptops, to their workplace network?
A. MDM
B. NAC
C. DMZ
D. BYOD
Answer: D
75. A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss.
If the cable is connected to an antenna with 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna
element?
A. 10 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 26 dBm
E. 30 dBm
Answer: E
76. The Barker code converts a bit of data into a series of bits that are referred to as what?
A. Chipset
B. Chips
C. Convolutional code
D. Complementary code
Answer: B
77. Which answer correctly completes the following sentence?
The WMM certification, created by the Wi-Fi Alliance, is based on the ___________
coordination function with support for ___________ QoS priority.
A. Hybrid, contention-based
B. Point, scheduled
 20 / 30C. Dynamic, distributed
D. Distributed, trigger-and-delivery
E. Enhanced, contention-free
Answer: A
78. Which of the following frequency ranges are specified for use by IEEE 802.11 radios?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. 902 - 928 MHz
B. 2.4000 C 2.4835 GHz
C. 5.15 C 5.25 GHz
D. 5.470 C 5.725 GHz
E. 5.725 C 5.875 GHz
Answer: BCDE
79. Which security standard defines port-based access control?
A. IEEE 802.11x
B. IEEE 802.3b
C. IEEE 802.11i
D. IEEE 802.1X
E. IEEE 802.11s
Answer: D
80. What can be delivered over the air to WLAN mobile devices, such as tablets and
smartphones, when a mobile device management (MDM) solution is deployed?
A. Configuration settings
B. Applications
C. Certificates
D. Web clips
E. All of the above
Answer: E
81. Which wireless topology provides citywide wireless coverage?
A. WMAN
B. WLAN
C. WPAN
D. WAN
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E. WWAN
Answer: A
82. Public hotspots typically provide clients with which of the following security features?
A. Server authentication.
B. Encryption.
C. TKIP.
D. No client security is available.
Answer: D
83. Which one of the following channels can be used for VHT transmissions?
A. 44
B. 1
C. 7
D. 13
Answer: A
84. What are some potential problems when enabling 40 MHz channels in the 5 GHz band?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Adjacent channel interference
B. Co-channel interference
C. Higher SNR
D. Lower SNR
E. Decreased range
Answer: BD
85. Rogue WLAN devices are commonly installed by whom? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Attackers
B. Wardrivers
C. Contractors
D. Visitors
E. Employees
Answer: CDE
86. ACKs are required for which of the following frames?
A. Unicast
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B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. Anycast
Answer: A
87. Which type of site survey uses modeling algorithms and attenuation values to create visual
models of RF coverage cells?
A. Associated
B. Passive
C. Predictive
D. Assisted
E. Active
Answer: C
88. What is the frequency width of a standard OFDM channel?
A. 20 MHz
B. 22 MHz
C. 25 MHz
D. 40 MHz
E. 80 MHz
F. 160 MHz
Answer: A
89. What factor does not influence the distance at which an RF signal can be effectively
received?
A. Free Space Path Loss
B. Receiving station’s radio sensitivity
C. Transmitting station’s output power
D. Receiving station’s output power
Answer: D
90. A powered device (PD) must be capable of accepting up to how many volts from either the
data lines or the unused pairs of the Ethernet cable?
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A. 14.5 volts
B. 20.5 volts
C. 48 volts
D. 57 volts
Answer: D
91. Select the absolute units of power. (Choose all that apply.)
A. Watt
B. Milliwatt
C. Decibel
D. dBm
E. Bel
Answer: ABD
92. What type of VPN solution is typically deployed with a remote AP at a teleworker's home?
A. Layer 2 IPsec VPN
B. Layer 3 PPTP VPN
C. Layer 3 IPsec VPN
D. Layer 7 SSL VPN
Answer: A
93. When providing remote wireless access using a WLAN branch router and a layer 3 IPsec
VPN, where are the client IP addresses normally sourced?
A. DHCP server at corporate headquarters
B. Local DHCP server at branch office
C. Internal DHCP server in WLAN branch router
D. Static IP addresses
Answer: C
94. What answers correctly complete the following sentence? ____________ and
____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine if the wireless medium is busy.
(Choose 2)
A. Backoff
B. Pseudo-random
C. Virtual
D. Active
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E. Physical
F. Interframe
G. Vector
Answer: CE
95. In a multiple-channel architecture (MCA) design, what is the greatest number of
nonoverlapping channels that can be deployed in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
A. 3
B. 12
C. 11
D. 14
E. 4
Answer: A
96. What phrase defines Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)?
A. The power output from the radio into the RF cable
B. The power output from the radio after cable losses
C. The highest RF signal strength that is transmitted from a given antenna
D. Reflected power due to an impedance mismatch in the signal path
E. Power supplied from the transmission line to the antenna input
Answer: C
97. Which of these attacks are considered layer 2 denial-of-service attacks? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Deauthentication spoofing
B. Jamming
C. Virtual carrier attacks
D. PS-Poll floods
E. Authentication floods
Answer: ACDE
98. When using a hotspot, you should do which of the following to ensure security back to your
corporate network?
A. Enable WEP.
B. Enable 802.1X/EAP.
C. Use an IPsec VPN.
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D. Security cannot be provided because you do not control the access point.
Answer: C
99. Which 802.11 service set may allow for client roaming?
A. ESS
B. Basic service set
C. IBSS
D. Spread spectrum service set
Answer: A
100. What are the two reasons that 802.11 radios use physical carrier sense? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. To synchronize incoming transmissions
B. To synchronize outgoing transmissions
C. To reset the NAV
D. To start the random backoff timer
E. To assess the RF medium
Answer: AE
101. Which of these 802.11 technologies can operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency band? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. 802.11a (OFDM radios)
B. 802.11b (HR-DSSS radios)
C. 802.11g (ERP radios)
D. 802.11n (HT radios)
E. 802.11ac (VHT radios)
F. 802.11ax (HE radios)
Answer: BCDF
102. What planes of operation reside in the access points of a distributed WLAN architecture?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Radio plane
B. Data plane
C. Network plane
D. Control plane
E. Management plane
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Answer: BD
103. Which type of location often has a person responsible for keeping track of frequency usage
inside the organization?
A. Manufacturing plant
B. Hotspot
C. Hospital
D. Cruise ship
Answer: C
104. Which of these client radios will be able to transmit in the U-NII-5 band?
A. Wi-Fi 4 client radios
B. Wi-Fi 5 client radios
C. Wi-Fi 6 client radios
D. Wi-Fi 6E client radios
E. Wi-Fi 7 client radios
Answer: D
105. The ___________ is the ambient or background level of radio energy on a specific
channel.
A. Received Signal Strength Indicator
B. Noise Floor
C. RF Mathematics
D. SNR
Answer: B
106. When 802.1X/EAP security is deployed, RADIUS attributes can also be leveraged for role-
based assignment of which type of user access permissions? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Stateful firewall rules
B. Time
C. VLANS
D. ACLs
E. Bandwidth
Answer: ABCDE
107. As you prepare for a site survey in a multi-floor corporate office, you have learned about
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several wireless devices that support connection-oriented, real-time applications.
These applications are sensitive to service interruptions and require excellent signal quality, low
latency, and low loss. For that reason, it is important to identify sources of RF interference as
well as building characteristics that would cause RF blockage or dead spots.
What systems or environmental characteristics are most likely to cause interference or RF
blockage and disrupt service for these applications? (Choose 2)
A. Microwave ovens
B. Narrow hallways
C. Elevator shafts
D. RFID chokepoints
E. Workspace dividers
Answer: AC
108. Which 802.11 service set is defined specifically for directional multi-gigabit (DMG) radios?
A. BSS
B. ESS
C. IBSS
D. PBSS
E. MBSS
Answer: D
109. How are IPsec VPNs used to provide security in combination with 802.11 WLANs?
A. Client-based security on public access WLANs
B. Point-to-point wireless bridge links
C. Connectivity across WAN links
D. All of the above
Answer: D
110. Which two 802.11 topologies require the use of an access point?
A. WPAN
B. IBSS
C. Basic service set
D. Ad hoc
E. ESS
Answer: CE
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111. What mechanisms are specified by the IEEE 802.11 standard to attempt to prevent
multiple radios from transmittingon the RF medium at a given point in time? (Choose 3)
A. Random backoff timer
B. Clear channel assessment
C. Network allocation vector
D. Slot assessment value
E. Collision detection
Answer: ABC
112. Which of the following is a better indicator of what outside influences are affecting an RF
signal at a specific moment in time?
A. RSSI
B. SNR
C. EIRP
D. SINR
Answer: D
113. Which of the following encryption methods use symmetric ciphers? (Choose all that apply.)
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. Public-key cryptography
D. CCMP
Answer: ABD
114. The IEEE process to create a PoE standard began in?
A. 1999
B. 2002
C. 1998
D. 2000
Answer: A
115. What are some of the possible negative effects of an impendence mismatch? (Choose all
that apply.)
A. Voltage reflection
B. Blockage of the Fresnel zone
C. Erratic signal strength
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D. Decreased signal amplitude
E. Amplifier/transmitter failure
Answer: ACDE
116. dBi is a measure of what?
A. The output of the transmitter
B. The signal increase caused by the antenna
C. The signal increase of the intentional transmitter
D. The comparison between an isotropic radiator and the transceiver
E. The strength of the intentional radiator
Answer: B
 
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