Certified Wireless Network Administrator CWNA-109 Updated Dumps

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CWNA-109
Exam Name: Certified Wireless Network Administrator
Full version: 766 Q&As
Full version of CWNA-109 Dumps
Share some CWNA-109 exam dumps below.
1. Select two types of rogue devices that cannot be detected by a layer 2 wireless intrusion
prevention system (WIPS):
A. 900 MHz radio
B. 802.11h-compliant device
C. FHSS radio
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https://www.certqueen.com/CWNA-109.html
D. 802.11b routers
E. 802.11g mixed-mode device
Answer: AC
2. Which 802.11 service set is defined specifically for directional multi-gigabit (DMG) radios?
A. BSS
B. ESS
C. IBSS
D. PBSS
E. MBSS
Answer: D
3. As defined by the IEEE-2012 standard, how much separation is needed between center
frequencies of channels in the U-NII-2 Extended band?
A. 10 MHz
B. 20 MHz
C. 22 MHz
D. 25 MHz
E. 30 MHz
Answer: B
4. What terms accurately complete the following sentence?
The IEEE 802.11-2012 standard specifies mandatory support of the ___________ cipher suite
for Robust Security Network Associations, and optional use of the ___________ cipher suite,
which is designed for use with pre-RSNA hardware.
A. CCMP, TKIP
B. 802.1X/EAP, WEP
C. TLS, SSL
D. CCKM, WEP
E. RC5, RC4
Answer: A
5. Which 802.11 amendments provide for throughput of 1 Gbps or higher? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. 802.11aa
B. 802.11ab
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C. 802.11ac
D. 802.11ad
E. 802.11ae
F. 802.11af
Answer: CD
6. Which of these methods of MIMO receive diversity is useful when receiving incoming
transmissions from a SISO radio?
A. Space-time block coding (STBC)
B. Maximal ratio combining (MRC)
C. Transmit beamforming (TxBF)
D. Spatial multiplexing (SM)
Answer: B
7. ABC Company is planning to install a new 802.11ac WLAN, but wants to upgrade its wired
infrastructure first to provide the best user experience possible. ABC Company has hired you to
perform the RF site survey.
During the interview with the network manager, you are told that the new Ethernet edge
switches will support VoIP phones and 802.11 access points, both using 802.3 PoE.
After hearing this information, what immediate concerns do you note?
A. VoIP phones and 802.11 access points should not be powered by the same edge switch due
to distortion.
B. The edge Ethernet switches should support Ether-channel to get the best results out of the
network.
C. If the switches are in optimal locations for VoIP phones, they are likely to be suboptimal
locations for 802.11 APs.
D. The power budget in the edge switches must be carefully planned and monitored based on
the number of supported PoE devices.
Answer: D
8. What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers?
(Choose 4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
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E. IGMP snooping
Answer: ABDE
9. Many 802.11ac enterprise access points require 802.3at power to be fully functional.
What 802.11ac capabilities might be downgraded when using the lower power provided by
802.3af power sourcing equipment? (Choose all that apply.)
A. MIMO radio chains
B. 80 MHz channel capability
C. 256-QAM modulation
D. 40 MHz channel capability
Answer: ABC
10. You are evaluating a connection that states the data rate is 150 Mbps.
What is the expected throughput of this connection?
A. Less than 150 Mbps because of 802.11 overhead and contention
B. 54 Mbps because that is the actual maximum throughput of an 802.11 connection
C. More than 150 Mbps because of compression
D. 150 Mbps because the data rate is equal to the throughput
Answer: A
Explanation:
The data rate of a signal is the speed that the data bits in individual 802.11 data frames are
sent, but it does not account for the actual amount of data that can be transmitted over time.
The throughput of a connection is the flow of information over time, which is affected by various
factors such as data encoding, modulation, encryption, airtime utilization, noise levels,
interference, etc. Therefore, the throughput is always lower than the data rate. According to one
of the web search results1, the actual throughput is normally 60-70 percent of the supported
data rates. So, for a connection with a data rate of 150 Mbps, the expected throughput would be
around 90-105 Mbps.
11. What factor is likely to cause the least impact on the application layer throughput of an
802.11n client station in a 2.4 GHz HT BSS?
A. Increasing or decreasing the number of spatial streams in use by the client station and AP
B. Implementing Fast BSS Transition (FT) for roaming
C. Implementation of several other clients in the same BSS using 802.11g radios
D. RF interference from more than 10 nearby Bluetooth transmitters
Answer: B
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Explanation:
Implementing Fast BSS Transition (FT) for roaming is likely to cause the least impact on the
application layer throughput of an 802.11n client station in a 2.4 GHz HT BSS. FT is a feature
that allows a client station to quickly switch from one AP to another within the same ESS
(Extended Service Set) without having to re-authenticate and re-associate with each AP. This
reduces the latency and packet loss that may occur during roaming, thus improving the user
experience and maintaining the application layer throughput. FT is defined in the IEEE 802.11r
amendment and is also known as Fast Roaming or Fast Secure Roaming.
Reference: Chapter 9, page 367; , Section 6.3
12. What are the three logical planes of operation for network telecommunications?
A. Management
B. Core
C. Control
D. Access
E. Data
Answer: ACE
13. The 802.11e amendment (now part of the 802.11-2012 standard) defines which of the
following medium access methods to support QoS requirements? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Distributed Coordination Function (DCF)
B. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
C. Hybrid Coordination Function (HCF)
D. Point Coordination Function (PCF)
E. Hybrid Coordination Function Controlled Access (HCCA)
Answer: BCE
14. Which IEEE 802.11 amendment specifies the use of up to eight spatial streams of
modulated data bits?
A. IEEE 802.11n
B. IEEE 802.11g
C. IEEE 802.11ac
D. IEEE 802.11s
E. IEEE 802.11w
Answer: C
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15. Which of the following tools can be used in an indoor site survey? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Measuring wheel
B. GPS
C. Ladder
D. Battery pack
E. Microwave oven
Answer: ACD
16. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the number of subcarriers in the
following channels? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 40 MHz subcarriers = 2 times 20 MHz subcarriers
B. 40 MHz subcarriers > 2 times 20 MHz subcarriers
C. 80 MHz subcarriers = 2 times 40 MHz subcarriers
D. 80 MHz subcarriers > 2 times 40 MHz subcarriers
E. 160 MHz subcarriers = 2 times 80 MHz subcarriers
F. 160 MHz subcarriers > 2 times 80 MHz subcarriers
Answer: BDE
17. A dual-band 802.11ac AP must be powered by PoE. As a class 4 device, what power level
should be received at the AP?
A.30W
B. 12.95 W
C. 25.5 W
D. 15.4 W
Answer: C
Explanation:
PoE has different standards that define different power levels for PSEs and PDs. The original
standard, IEEE 802.3af, defines two classes of PSEs: Class 3 (15.4 W) and Class 4 (30 W).
The newer standard, IEEE 802.3at, also known as PoE+, defines four classes of PSEs: Class 0
(15.4 W), Class 1 (4 W), Class 2 (7 W), and Class 3 (12.95 W). The power level received at the
PD is always lower than the power level provided by the PSE, due to cable resistance and
power dissipation. The IEEE standards specify the minimum power level that must be received
at the PD for each class of PSE. For a Class 4 PSE, the minimum power level received at the
PD is 25.5 W910.
Reference: CWNA-109 Study Guide, Chapter 7: Power over Ethernet (PoE), page 295;
CWNA-109 Study Guide, Chapter 7: Power over Ethernet (PoE), page 289.6 / 39
18. Which of these attacks are considered layer 2 denial-of-service attacks? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. Deauthentication spoofing
B. Jamming
C. Virtual carrier attacks
D. PS-Poll floods
E. Authentication floods
Answer: ACDE
19. When compared with legacy Power Save mode, how does VHT TXOP power save improve
battery life for devices on a WLAN?
A. Legacy Power Save mode was removed in the 802.11ac amendment.
B. VHT TXOP power save allows the WLAN transceiver to disable more components when in a
low power state.
C. VHT TXOP power save uses the partial AID in the preamble to allow clients to identify frames
targeted for them.
D. VHT TXOP power save allows stations to enter sleep mode and legacy Power Save does
not.
Answer: B
Explanation:
VHT TXOP (Very High Throughput Transmit Opportunity) power save is a feature introduced
with the 802.11ac amendment, which is designed to improve the power efficiency of devices
connected to a WLAN. This feature enhances battery life in several ways, compared to the
legacy Power Save mode: Enhanced Power Saving: VHT TXOP power save allows devices to
disable more components of the WLAN transceiver when they are in a low power state. This
reduces the power consumption during periods when the device is not actively transmitting or
receiving data.
Intelligent Wake-Up Mechanisms: It employs more sophisticated mechanisms for devices to
determine when they need to wake up and listen to the channel, further reducing unnecessary
power usage.
Optimized Operation: This power save mode is optimized for the high-throughput environment
of 802.11ac networks, allowing devices to efficiently manage power while maintaining high
performance.
Legacy Power Save mode, introduced in earlier versions of the 802.11 standards, does not
provide the same level of component disablement or the intelligent wake-up mechanisms found
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in VHT TXOP power save, making option B the correct answer.
Reference: IEEE 802.11ac-2013 Amendment: Enhancements for Very High Throughput for
Operation in Bands below 6 GHz.
CWNA Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide: Exam CWNA-109, by
David D.
Coleman and David A. Westcott.
20. Which type of identifier is used by BLE radios for iBeacon proximity purposes?
A. BSSID
B. UUID
C. SSID
D. PMKID
Answer: B
21. What factors are taken into account when calculating the Link Budget of a point-to-point
outdoor WLAN bridge link?
A. Operating frequency
B. Transmit antenna gain
C. Transmit power
D. Antenna height
Answer: ABC
22. In which plane of the three networking planes is an access point configured by a WLAN
controller?
A. Control
B. Management
C. Security
D. Data
Answer: B
23. What are some questions that should be considered during WLAN client capacity planning?
A. How many users and devices need access currently?
B. How many users and devices will need access in the future?
C. Where are the users and devices located?
D. What are the MIMO capabilities of the client devices?
E. What type of applications will be used for the WLAN?
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F. All of the above
Answer: F
24. The FCC is preparing for the advent of 802.11ac technology that can use 80 MHz and 160
MHz channels, and therefore, more unlicensed spectrum is needed.
What are the newly proposed 5 GHz frequency bands? (Choose all that apply.)
A. U-NII-1
B. U-NII-2A
C. U-NII-2B
D. U-NII-2C
E. U-NII-3
F. U-NII-4
Answer: CF
25. Lynne runs a small hotel, and as a value added service for her customers she has
implemented a Wi-Fi hot-spot. Lynne has read news articles about how hackers wait at hotspots
trying to take advantage of unsuspecting users. She wants to avoid this problem at her hotel.
What is an efficient and practical step that Lynne can take to decrease the likelihood of active
attacks on her customers' wireless computers?
A. Implement Network Access Control (NAC) and require antivirus and firewall software along
with OS patches.
B. Require EAP-FAST authentication and provide customers with a username/password on
their receipt.
C. Implement an SSL VPN in the WLAN controller that initiates after HTTPS login.
D. Enable station-to-station traffic blocking by the access points in the hotel.
Answer: D
26. Which two 802.11 topologies require the use of an access point?
A. WPAN
B. IBSS
C. Basic service set
D. Ad hoc
E. ESS
Answer: CE
27. The 802.11b amendment defined which PHY?
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A. HR-DSSS
B. FHSS
C. OFDM
D. PBCC
E. EIRP
Answer: A
28. 11 wireless bridge links are typically associated with which network architecture layer?
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. Network
Answer: B
29. After the station has performed the carrier sense and determined that no other devices are
transmitting for a period of a DIFS interval, what is the next step for the station?
A. Wait the necessary number of slot times before transmitting if a random backoff value has
already been selected.
B. Begin transmitting.
C. Select a random backoff value.
D. Begin the random backoff timer.
Answer: C
30. What is the traditional data-forwarding model for 802.11 user traffic when WLAN controllers
are deployed?
A. Distributed data forwarding
B. Autonomous forwarding
C. Proxy data forwarding
D. Centralized data forwarding
E. All of the above
Answer: D
31. Which 802.11ax guard interval (GI) is intended solely for outdoor communications?
A. 0.4 microseconds
B. 0.8 microseconds
C. 1.6 microseconds
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D. 3.2 microseconds
E. 6.4 microseconds
Answer: D
32. The presence of what type of transmissions can trigger the protection mechanism within an
ERP basic service set? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Association of an HR-DSSS client
B. Association of an ERP-OFDM client
C. HR-DSSS beacon frame
D. ERP beacon frame with the NonERP_Present bit set to 1
E. Association of an FHSS client
Answer: ACD
33. Which of the following is true for MIMO transmissions?
A. The transceiver can only receive from one antenna at a time.
B. Transceivers can transmit from multiple antennas at the same time.
C. The transceiver samples multiple antennas and chooses the best received signal from one
antenna.
D. Transceivers can transmit from only one antenna at a time.
Answer: B
34. To double the distance of a signal, the EIRP must be increased by how many dBs?
A. 3 dB
B. 6 dB
C. 10 dB
D. 20 dB
Answer: B
35. What are some examples of how an 802.11 action frame can be used? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. An action frame can function as a probe request.
B. An action frame can function as a neighbor report request.
C. An action frame can function as a probe response.
D. An action frame can function as a channel switch announcement.
E. An action frame can function as a beacon.
Answer: BD
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36. What problems may exist for a multiple channel architecture (MCA) WLAN when its APs are
all operating at full power (typically 100mW)? (Choose 2)
A. Wi-Fi enabled voice handsets with low transmit power can experience asynchronous
downlink and uplink performance.
B. WLAN client stations can experience the hidden node problem when located near each other
within the same cell.
C. The mismatched power between WLAN client stations and APs violates regulatory and IEEE
signal quality requirements.
D. Cell size may be too large, causing co-channel interference to adjacent cells and reducing
system capacity.
E. APs operating in the 2.4 GHz band would prevent microwave ovens and analog video
cameras from functioning.
Answer: AD
37. Prior to association, what parameter can 802.11 client devices measure and use to select
the optimal access point for association?
A. Signal strength of access point beacons received
B. Proximity to potential access points
C. Retry rate of probe request and response frames
D. Average round trip time to reach the InternetDNS server
E. Average round trip time to reach the IP router
Answer: A
38. Which management protocols are often used between a network management system
(NMS) server and remote access points for the purpose of monitoring a WLAN? (Choose all that
apply.)
A. IPsec
B. GRE
C. CAPWAP
D. DTLS
E. SNMP
Answer: CE
39. As a station moves away from the access point to which it is associated, it changes its data
rate from 600 Mbps to 540 Mbps and then to 450 Mbps.
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What IEEE 802.11 term is used to describe this functionality?
A. Dynamic Rate Switching
B. Multirate Control
C. Modulation and Coding Selection
D. Rate Set Selectivity
E. Adaptive Rate Management
Answer: A
40. What component of the 802.11 standard allows stations to reserve access to the RF
medium for a specified period of time?
A. Short guard intervals
B. DTIM Interval
C. Listen Interval
D. Probe Request frames
E. RTS or CTS frames
Answer: E
41. What term is used to describe the time differential between a primary signal and a reflected
signal arriving at a receiver?
A. Path delay
B. Spread spectrum
C. Multipath
D. Delay spread
Answer: D
42. Which methods of EAP can be used for authentication for a Passpoint client to connect to a
secure Passpoint SSID? (Choose all that apply.)
A. EAP-PEAP
B. EAP-TLS
C. Anonymous EAP-TLS
D. EAP-AKA
E. EAP-LEAP
Answer: BD
43. Which of these attacks can be mitigated with a mutual authentication solution? (Choose all
that apply.)
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A. Malicious eavesdropping
B. Deauthentication
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Wireless hijacking
E. Authentication flood
Answer: CD
44. What is the default minimum size of a resource unit if 1024-QAM modulation is used by an
802.11ax radio?
A. 26-tone
B. 52-tone
C. 106-tone
D. 242-tone
E. 484-tone
Answer: D
45. Professor Perry Correll has an Ethernet switch that is compliant with 802.3at. He is having
problems with his APs randomly rebooting.
Which of the following could be causing his problems?
A. Multiple desktop PoE VoIP telephones are connected to the same Ethernet switch.
B. Most of the Ethernet cables running from the switch to the APs are 90 meters long.
C. The Ethernet cables are only Cat 5e.
D. The switch is capable of 1000BaseT, which is not compatible with the AP.
Answer: A
46. What primary metric of scanning can stations use to select the best AP for connectivity to
the desired BSS?
A. Signal strength of AP beacons received.
B. PING latency when testing against an Internet server.
C. FCS errors in frames transmitted to and from the AP.
D. Throughput speed in Mbps.
Answer: A
47. When a 160 MHz wide channel is used, how many primary channels are defined?
A. 1
B. 2
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C. 3
D. 4
E. None
Answer: B
48. A Wi-Fi Alliance interoperability certificate indicates that a device is a/b/g/n certified. It
further indicates one transmit and receive spatial stream for both the 2.4 GHz and 5.0 GHz
bands. It further indicates support for both WPA and WPA2 Enterprise and Personal.
Finally, it indicates support for EAP-TLS, EAP-TTLS/MSCHAPv2, PEAPv0/EAP-MSCHAPv2
and PEAPv1/EAP-GTC.
Which one of the following statements is false?
A. This client device supports protection mechanisms such as RTS/CTS and/or CTS-to-Self.
B. This client device supports both TKIP and CCMP cipher suites.
C. 300 Mbps is the maximum supported data rate for this device.
D. This client device supports the ERP, OFDM, and HT physical layer specifications.
E. This client device supports X.509 certificates for EAP authentication.
Answer: C
49. You are troubleshooting a controller-based AP that is unable to locate the controller. DHCP
is not use and the controller is located at 10.10.10.81/24 while the AP is on the 10.10.16.0/24
network.
What should be inspected to verify proper configuration?
A. NTP
B. BOOTH
C. DNS
D. AP hosts file
Answer: C
Explanation:
What should be inspected to verify proper configuration is DNS. DNS stands for Domain Name
System and is a service that resolves hostnames to IP addresses. In a controller-based AP
deployment, DNS can be used to help the AP locate the controller by using a predefined
hostname such as CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER or aruba-master. The AP sends a DNS
query for this hostname and receives an IP address of the controller as a response. Therefore,
if DNS is not configured properly or if there is no DNS entry for the controller hostname, the AP
may not be able to locate the controller. NTP, BOOTP, and AP hosts file are not relevant for this
scenario.
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Reference: [CWNP Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide: Exam
CWNA-109], page 374; [CWNA: Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide:
Exam CWNA-109], page 364.
50. __________ is the measurement of how broad or narrow the focus of an antenna is.
A. Radiation envelopes
B. Static beamforming
C. Transmit beamforming
D. Beamwidth
Answer: D
51. 128-bit WEP encryption uses a user-provided static key of what size?
A. 104 bytes
B. 64 bits
C. 124 bits
D. 128 bits
E. 104 bits
Answer: E
52. Which of the following can cause roaming problems? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Too little cell coverage overlap
B. Too much cell coverage overlap
C. Free space path loss
D. CSMA/CA
E. Hidden node
Answer: AB
53. What does FCC stand for?
A. Federal Castration Commission
B. Foreign Colonization Congress
C. Freight Coordination Capital
D. Federal Communications Commission
Answer: D
54. Select two solutions that can help mitigate peer-to-peer attacks from other clients associated
to the same 802.11 access point.
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A. Personal firewall
B. Client isolation
C. OSPF
D. MAC filter
Answer: AB
55. A WIPS uses which four labels to classify an 802.11 device? (Choose the best four
answers.)
A. Authorized
B. Neighbor
C. Enabled
D. Disabled
E. Rogue
F. Unauthorized/unknown
Answer: ABEF
56. Which organization is responsible for enforcing maximum transmit power rules in an
unlicensed frequency band?
A. IEEE
B. Wi-Fi Alliance
C. ISO
D. IETF
E. None of the above
Answer: E
57. A client complains of low data rates on his computer. When you evaluate the situation, you
see that the signal strength is -84 dBm and the noise floor is -96 dBm. The client is an 802.11ac
client and connects to an 802.11ac AP. Both the client and AP are 2x2:2 devices.
What is the likely cause of the low data rate issue?
A. Weak signal strength
B. CAT5e cabling run to the AP
C. Too few spatial streams
D. Lack of support for 802.11n
Answer: A
58. What statement about 802.3, Clause 33 Power over Ethernet is true?
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A. When using CAT5 cabling, you increase the maximum draw available to the PD over that
available with CAT6.
B. Only endpoint PSEs are supported.
C. Only midspan PSEs are supported.
D. The lowest voltage drop is achieved when using CAT6 cable instead of Cat5 or CAT5e.
Answer: D
Explanation:
https://www.cablinginstall.com/articles/2012/08/cat-6a-vs-cat-5e-poe.html
The statement that the lowest voltage drop is achieved when using CAT6 cable instead of Cat5
or CAT5e is true about 802.3, Clause 33 Power over Ethernet. Power over Ethernet (PoE) is a
technology that allows electrical power to be delivered over Ethernet cables along with data
signals. PoE is defined by IEEE 802.3, Clause 33 and has several variants, such as PoE
(802.3af), PoE+ (802.3at), and PoE++ (802.3bt). PoE works by using a device called PSE
(Power Sourcing Equipment) that injects power into the Ethernet cable and a device called PD
(Powered Device) that receives power from the Ethernet cable. The PSE can be either an
endpoint device, such as a switch or a router, or a midspan device, such as an injector or a
splitter, that is inserted between two Ethernet devices. The PD can be any device that requirespower, such as an access point, a camera, or a phone.
One of the factors that affects PoE performance is voltage drop, which is the reduction of
voltage that occurs as current flows through a cable due to its resistance. Voltage drop can
cause power loss and inefficiency in PoE systems, as well as damage to PDs if the voltage falls
below their minimum requirement. To minimize voltage drop, it is recommended to use high-
quality cables with low resistance and short length. Among the common types of Ethernet
cables, CAT6 has the lowest resistance and therefore the lowest voltage drop compared to
Cat5 or CAT5e. CAT6 also has higher bandwidth and data rate than Cat5 or CAT5e, making it
more suitable for PoE applications.
Reference: 1, Chapter 7, page 263; 2, Section 4.4
59. Which of the following encryption methods use symmetric ciphers? (Choose all that apply.)
A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. Public-key cryptography
D. CCMP
Answer: ABD
60. For what likely reasons might an organization choose to purchase an AP designed for
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outdoor deployment to use as an indoor WLAN AP at an industrial facility? (Choose 2)
A. Aesthetic requirements
B. Physical security and theft prevention
C. Protection from environmental conditions
D. Reduce transient RF interference
E. 802.11 security compliance
Answer: BC
61. What are some recommendations when using 40 MHz channels in the 5 GHz band?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Enable the DFS channels.
B. Lower AP transmit power.
C. Verify wall attenuation.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
62. While aligning a directional antenna, you notice that the signal drops as you turn the
antenna away from the other antenna, but then it increases a little.
This increase in signal is cause by what?
A. Signal reflection
B. Frequency harmonic
C. Side band
D. Side lobe
Answer: D
63. Which 802.11 radio technologies are most impacted by the destructive effects of multipath?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
E. 802.11i
Answer: ABC
64. ACKs are required for which of the following frames?
A. Unicast
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B. Broadcast
C. Multicast
D. Anycast
Answer: A
65. Which of the following terms refer to a PTMP network design? (Choose all that apply.)
A. PTP
B. Mesh
C. Hub and spoke
D. Star
Answer: CD
66. What answers correctly complete the following sentence? ____________ and
____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine if the wireless medium is busy.
(Choose 2)
A. Backoff
B. Pseudo-random
C. Virtual
D. Active
E. Physical
F. Interframe
G. Vector
Answer: CE
67. The IEEE process to create a PoE standard began in?
A. 1999
B. 2002
C. 1998
D. 2000
Answer: A
68. If WMM-PS is not supported, after a station sees its AID set to 1 in the TIM, what typically is
the next frame that the station transmits?
A. CTS
B. PS-Poll
C. ATIM
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D. ACK
Answer: B
69. A WLAN transmitter that emits a 200 mW signal is connected to a cable with 3 dB loss.
If the cable is connected to an antenna with 10 dBi gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna
element?
A. 10 dBm
B. 13 dBm
C. 20 dBm
D. 26 dBm
E. 30 dBm
Answer: E
70. The EDCA medium access method provides for the prioritization of traffic via priority queues
that are matched to eight 802.1D priority tags.
What are the EDCA priority queues called?
A. TXOP
B. Access categories
C. Priority levels
D. Priority bits
E. PT
Answer: B
71. The basic architecture of any MDM solution consists of:
A. Mobile Device
B. AP and WLAN Controller
C. MDM Server
D. All of the above
Answer: D
72. Which wave properties can be modulated to encode data? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Amplitude
B. Frequency
C. Phase
D. Wavelength
Answer: ABC
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73. A natural disaster has occurred in a remote area that is approximately 57 miles from the
response team headquarters. The response team must implement a local wireless network
using 802.11 WLAN access points.
What is the best method, of those listed, for implementation of a network back-haul for
communications across the Internet in this scenario?
A. 802.11 bridging to the response team headquarters
B. Cellular/LTE/5G
C. Turn up the output power of the WLAN at the response team headquarters
D. Temporary wired DSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
Cellular/LTE/5G is the best method for implementing a network backhaul for communications
across the Internet in a remote area that is affected by a natural disaster. This is because
cellular/LTE/5G networks are wireless and do not depend on physical infrastructure that may be
damaged or unavailable in such scenarios. Cellular/LTE/5G networks also offer high-speed data
transmission and wide coverage area, which are essential for emergency response operations.
802.11 bridging to the response team headquarters is not feasible because it requires line-of-
sight and has limited range. Turning up the output power of the WLAN at the response team
headquarters is not effective because it may cause interference and does not guarantee reliable
connectivity. Temporary wired DSL is not practical because it requires installing cables and
equipment that may not be available or accessible in a remote area.
Reference: CWNA-109 Study Guide, Chapter 7: Wireless LAN Topologies, page 2031
74. You have been tasked with creating a wireless link between two buildings on a single
campus. The link must support at least 150 Mbps data rates.
What kind of WLAN technology role should you deploy?
A. WPAN
B. IBSS
C. Wireless bridging
D. Access BSS
Answer: C
Explanation:
https://www.wlanmall.com/what-is-a-wireless-bridge/
Wireless bridging is a WLAN technology role that allows two or more networks to be connected
wirelessly over a distance. A wireless bridge consists of two or more APs that are configured to
 22 / 39
operate in bridge mode and use directional antennas to establish a point-to-point or point-to-
multipoint link. Wireless bridging can support high data rates and is suitable for scenarios where
running cables is impractical or expensive. To create a wireless link between two buildings on a
single campus that supports at least 150 Mbps data rates, wireless bridging is an appropriate
solution678.
Reference: CWNA-109 Study Guide, Chapter 6: Wireless LAN Devices and Topologies, page
271; CWNA-109 Study Guide, Chapter 6: Wireless LAN Devices and Topologies, page 265; Wi-
Fi Wireless Bridging Explained.
75. Which of the following statements about scanning are true? (Choose all that apply.)
A. There are two types of scanning: passive and active.
B. Stations must transmit beacons in order to learn about local APs.
C. The 802.11 standard allows APs to ignore probe requests for security reasons.
D. It is common for stations to continue to send probe requests after being associated to an AP.
Answer: AD
76. Which carrier sense method is used to detect and decode 802.11 transmissions?
A. Network allocation vector
B. Signal detect
C. Energy detect
D. Virtual carrier sense
Answer: B
77. What is required when operating 802.11ax APS in the 6 GHz band using passphrase-based
authentication?
A. VHT PHY
B. HT PHY
C. SAE
D. CCMP
Answer: C
78. MIMO radios use which mechanisms for transmit diversity? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Maximum ratio combining (MRC)
B. Spatial multiplexing (SM)
C. Space-time block coding (STBC)
D. Cyclic shift diversity (CSD)
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E. Multiple traffic ID block acknowledgment (MTBA)
Answer: CD
79. dBi is an expression of what type of measurement?
A. Access point gain
B. Received power
C. Transmitted power
D. Antenna gain
Answer: D
80. Which of these WLAN architectures may require the use of an NMS server to manage and
monitor the WLAN?
A. Autonomous WLAN architecture
B. Centralized WLAN architecture
C. Distributed WLAN architecture
D. Allof the above
Answer: D
81. Which ESS design scenario is required by the IEEE 802.11-2020 standard?
A. Two or more access points with overlapping coverage cells
B. Two or more access points with overlapping disjointed coverage cells
C. One access point with a single BSA
D. Two basic service sets interconnected by a distribution system medium (DSM)
E. None of the above
Answer: E
82. ABC Company has thousands of Wi-Fi users accessing their network on a daily basis. Their
WLAN consists of 700 access points, 6 WLAN controllers, and a wireless network management
system.
What network functions are performed by the enterprise-class WNMS? (Choose 3)
A. RF pre-deployment planning and post-deployment reporting of access point locations on a
floor plan
B. Performance and security monitoring of WLAN controllers with alarms and notifications for
administrative staff
C. Radio management, fast roaming, key caching, and other centralized control plane
operations
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D. Centralized bridging of guest data traffic and application of firewall and QoS policies to data
E. Management of WLAN controller configuration and provisioning of firmware updates
F. Generating, encrypting, and decrypting 802.11 frames and collecting RF radio data.
Answer: ABE
83. CCMP encryption uses which AES key size?
A. 192 bits
B. 64 bits
C. 256 bits
D. 128 bits
Answer: D
84. What planes of operation reside in the access points of a distributed WLAN architecture?
(Choose all that apply.)
A. Radio plane
B. Data plane
C. Network plane
D. Control plane
E. Management plane
Answer: BD
85. _______ and _______ are two forms of contention that are heavily used in today’s
networks. (Choose two)
A. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA \ CD)
B. Carrier Sense Minimal Access with Collision Acceptance (CSMA \ CA)
C. Carrier Sense Minimal Access with Collision Division (CSMA \ CD)
D. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA \ CA)
Answer: AD
86. Which option best describes a device used to provide wireless connectivity for a small
number of wired clients?
A. VPN router
B. Wireless workgroup bridge
C. Wireless mesh router
D. Wireless Ethernet repeater
E. Wireless bridge
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Answer: B
87. What phrase defines Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP)?
A. The power output from the radio into the RF cable
B. The power output from the radio after cable losses
C. The highest RF signal strength that is transmitted from a given antenna
D. Reflected power due to an impedance mismatch in the signal path
E. Power supplied from the transmission line to the antenna input
Answer: C
88. You are tasked with performing a throughput test on the WLAN. The manager asks that you
use open source tools to reduce costs.
What open source tool is designed to perform a throughput test?
A. iPerf
B. PuTTy
C. IxChariot
D. Python
Answer: A
89. A wave is divided into degrees.
How many degrees make up a complete wave?
A. 100
B. 180
C. 212
D. 360
Answer: D
90. What is another name for an 802.11 data frame that is also known as a PSDU?
A. PPDU
B. MSDU
C. MPDU
D. BPDU
Answer: C
91. Why would a WLAN network administrator consider disabling the two lowest rates on an
802.11b/g/n access point? (Choose all that apply.)
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A. Medium contention
B. Adjacent channel interference
C. Hidden node
D. Intersymbol interference
E. All of the above
Answer: AC
92. What are some additional recommendations that can be made along with the final site
survey report? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Training recommendations
B. Security recommendations
C. Coverage recommendations
D. Capacity recommendations
E. Roaming recommendations
Answer: AB
93. What is an advantage of using WPA3-Personal instead of WPA2-Personal as a security
solution for 802.11 networks?
A. WPA3-Personal, also called WPA3-SAE, uses an authentication exchange and
WPA2-Personal does not
B. WPA3-Personal, also called WPA3-SAE, uses a stronger authentication exchange to better
secure the network
C. WPA3-Personal, also called WPA3-SAE, uses AES for encryption and WPA2-Personal does
not
D. WPA3-Personal, also called WPA3-SAE, uses a better encryption algorithm than
WPA2-Personal
Answer: B
Explanation:
An advantage of using WPA3-Personal instead of WPA2-Personal as a security solution for
802.11 networks is that WPA3-Personal, also called WPA3-SAE, uses a stronger authentication
exchange to better secure the network. WPA3-Personal uses Simultaneous Authentication of
Equals (SAE) as the key exchange protocol, which provides stronger protection against offline
dictionary attacks and password guessing than WPA2-Personal. SAE uses a Diffie-Hellman key
exchange with elliptic curve cryptography (ECC) to establish a pairwise master key (PMK)
between the AP and the client without revealing it to any eavesdropper. SAE also provides
forward secrecy, which means that if one PMK is compromised, it does not affect the security of
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other PMKs. WPA2-Personal uses Pre-Shared Key (PSK) as the key exchange protocol, which
is vulnerable to offline brute-force attacks if the passphrase is weak or leaked. Both
WPA3-Personal and WPA2-Personal use AES for encryption, so there is no difference in that
aspect. WPA3-Personal does not use a different encryption algorithm than WPA2-Personal, but
rather a different key exchange protocol.
Reference: [CWNP Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide: Exam
CWNA-109], page 307; [CWNA: Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide:
Exam CWNA-109], page 297.
94. What is the difference between association frames and reassociation frames?
A. Association frames are management frames, whereas reassociation frames are control
frames.
B. Association frames are used exclusively for roaming.
C. Reassociation frames contain the BSSID of the original AP.
D. Only association frames are used to join a BSS.
Answer: D
95. What factors will have the most significant impact on the amount of wireless bandwidth
available to each station within a BSS? (Choose 2)
A. The number of client stations associated to the BSS
B. The power management settings in the access point’s beacons
C. The presence of co-located (10m away) access points on non-overlapping channels
D. The data rates at which nearby client stations are transmitting and receiving data
E. The layer 3 protocol used by each station to transmit data over the wireless link
Answer: AD
96. Transmit beamforming uses what type of frames to analyze the MIMO channel before
transmitting directed paths of data?
A. Trigger frames
B. Beaming frames
C. Sounding frames
D. SM power save action frames
Answer: C
97. The Wi-Fi HaLow certification from the Wi-Fi Alliance will likely be used for sensor networks
and Internet of Things (IoT) devices and is based on which IEEE amendment?
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A. 802.11aq
B. 802.11ak
C. 802.11ae
D. 802.11ai
E. 802.11ah
Answer: E
98. Received signal strength indicator (RSSI) metrics are used by 802.11 radios to define which
RF characteristics?
A. Signal strength
B. Phase
C. Frequency
D. Modulation
Answer: A
99. What is the number one cause of layer 2 retransmissions?
A. Low SNR
B. Hidden node
C. Adjacent cell interference
D. RF interference
Answer: D
100. When determining the mounting height of a long-distance point-to-point antenna, which of
the following needs to be considered? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Frequency
B. Distance
C. Visual line of sight
D. Earth bulge
E. Antenna beamwidth
F. RF line of sight
Answer: ABDF
101. What documents might be needed prior to performing an indoor site survey for a new
wireless LAN? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Blueprints
B. Network topography map
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C. Network topology map
D. Coverage mapE. Frequency map
Answer: AC
102. What statements about the SSID are true? (Choose 2)
A. The SSID is a security session identifier used in RSNs.
B. The SSID must be included in an association request frame.
C. The SSID is an alphanumeric value assigned to device manufacturers by the IEEE.
D. The SSID is a pseudo-random number assigned to each client by an AP.
E. The SSID is an alphanumeric value with a maximum length of 32 octets.
F. When configuring a new network, creating an SSID is optional.
Answer: BE
103. Option 43 must be configured to allow access points to locate controllers. In what network
service should this option be configured?
A. DNS
B. LDAP
C. DHCP
D. RADIUS
Answer: C
Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the network service where option 43 must be
configured to allow access points to locate controllers. DHCP is a protocol that allows a device
to obtain an IP address and other network configuration parameters from a server. In a wireless
controller scenario, the access points can use DHCP to request an IP address from a DHCP
server, which can also provide the IP address or hostname of the wireless controller as an
option in the DHCP response. Option 43 is a vendor-specific option that can be used to encode
custom information for different types of devices. For example, Cisco access points can use
option 43 to receive the IP address of the wireless controller from the DHCP server, while Aruba
access points can use option 43 to receive the hostname of the wireless controller from the
DHCP server. This way, the access points can discover the wireless controller and establish a
connection with it.
Reference: 1, Chapter 8, page 309; 2, Section 5.2
104. What is the maximum power draw of an 802.3at PD?
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A. 12.95 watts
B. 15 watts
C. 7.4 watts
D. 25.5 watts
E. 30 watts
Answer: D
105. Which of the following are true about scanning? (Choose all that apply.)
A. There are two types of scanning: passive and active.
B. Stations must transmit probe requests in order to learn about local APs.
C. The 802.11 standard allows APs to ignore probe requests for security reasons.
D. It is common for stations to continue to send probe requests after being associated to an AP.
Answer: AD
106. What best describes hop time?
A. The period of time that the transmitter waits before hopping to the next frequency
B. The period of time that the standard requires when hopping between frequencies
C. The period of time that the transmitter takes to hop to the next frequency
D. The period of time the transmitter takes to hop through all of the FHSS frequencies
Answer: C
107. You are managing a wireless access point in autonomous mode using the Web based
interface. You capture traffic during this management task and notice that you can see the
HTML code of the Web pages used for access point management.
What error in administration could be the cause of this security concern?
A. IPsec is not in use of the management connection as recommended
B. A VPN with the AP is not established
C. WPA2 is disabled on the WLAN
D. HTTP is in use instead of HTTPS
Answer: D
108. You are troubleshooting a problem with interference from a non-802.11 device. Given that
the device is not a WLAN device, you cannot use a protocol analyzer and have chosen to use a
spectrum analyzer. You want to view the signal from the interfering device over time to see the
activity that is generating.
What common spectrum analyzer view should you use for this analysis?
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A. APs
B. Waterfall/Spectrogram
C. Real-time FFT
D. Clients
Answer: B
109. Which of these capabilities are considered mandatory for a phase one 802.11ac access
point as defined by the Wi-Fi Alliance's vendor certification program called Wi-Fi CERTIFIED
ac? (Choose all that apply.)
A. 20, 40, 80, 160 MHz channel
B. MCS 0C7
C. MCS 0C8
D. Two spatial streams
E. Long guard interval
Answer: BDE
110. What is another name for a wireless hijacking attack?
A. Wi-Fi phishing
B. Man-in-the-middle
C. Fake AP
D. Evil twin
E. AirSpy
Answer: D
111. You are reconfiguring an AP to use the short guard interval.
How long will the new guard interval duration be after the change?
A. 800 ns
B. 400 ns
C. 104 ms
D. 10 ms
Answer: B
Explanation:
The short guard interval is an optional feature of 802.11n and 802.11ac that reduces the time
between OFDM symbols from 800 ns to 400 ns. This can increase the data rate by about 11%,
but also requires more precise timing and synchronization between the transmitter and the
receiver. The short guard interval is only used when both the AP and the client support it and
 32 / 39
agree to use it.
Reference: [CWNA-109 Study Guide], Chapter 4: Radio Frequency Signal and Antenna
Concepts, page 163; [CWNA-109 Study Guide], Chapter 4: Radio Frequency Signal and
Antenna Concepts, page 157.
112. What is a telecommunications unit of measurement of traffic equal to 1 hour of telephone
traffic in 1 hour of time?
A. Ohm
B. dBm
C. Erlang
D. Call hour
E. Voltage Standing Wave Ratio
Answer: C
113. You are configuring an access point to use channel 128.
What important fact should be considered about this channel?
A. It is a 2.4 GHz frequency band 40 MHz channel, so it should not be used
B. It is a 22 MHz channel so it will overlap with the channels above and below it
C. It is a channel that may require DFS when used
D. It is a channel that is unsupported by all access points in all regulatory domains
Answer: C
Explanation:
It is a channel that may require DFS when used is an important fact that should be considered
about channel 128. Channel 128 is a 5 GHz frequency band 20 MHz channel that has a center
frequency of 5.64 GHz. Channel 128 is one of the channels that are subject to DFS (Dynamic
Frequency Selection) rules, which require Wi-Fi devices to monitor and avoid using channels
that are occupied by radar systems or other primary users. DFS is a feature that is defined in
the IEEE 802.11h amendment and is mandated by some regulatory bodies, such as the FCC
and the ETSI, to protect the licensed users of the 5 GHz band from interference by unlicensed
Wi-Fi devices. DFS works by using a mechanism called channel availability check (CAC), which
requires Wi-Fi devices to scan a channel for a certain period of time before using it. If a radar
signal is detected during the CAC or while using the channel, the Wi-Fi devices must switch to
another channel that is free from radar interference.
When configuring an access point to use channel 128, it is important to consider the
implications of DFS rules, such as:
The access point must support DFS and comply with the local regulations and standards that
 33 / 39
apply to DFS channels.
The access point may experience delays or interruptions in its operation due to CAC or channel
switching.
The access point may have limited channel selection or availability due to radar interference or
other Wi-Fi devices using DFS channels.
The access point may have compatibility or interoperability issues with some client devices that
do not support DFS or use different DFS parameters.
The access point may have performance or quality issues due to co-channel or adjacent-
channel interference from other Wi-Fi devices using non-DFS channels.
Therefore, it is advisable to use channel 128 only when necessary and after performing a
thorough site survey and spectrum analysis to determine the best channel for the access point.
Reference: 1, Chapter 3, page 117; 2, Section 3.2
114. The IEEE 802.11-2012 standard defines communication mechanisms at which layers of
the OSI model? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Network
B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Application
E. Data-Link
F. Session
Answer: BE
115. Which answer correctly completes the following sentence?
The WMM certification, createdby the Wi-Fi Alliance, is based on the ___________
coordination function with support for ___________ QoS priority.
A. Hybrid, contention-based
B. Point, scheduled
C. Dynamic, distributed
D. Distributed, trigger-and-delivery
E. Enhanced, contention-free
Answer: A
116. What type of 802.11 radio form factor is normally used in mobile devices?
A. Integrated single chip
B. PCMCIA
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C. Express Mini PCI
D. Mini PCI
E. Secure Digital
Answer: A
117. The 802.11 legacy standard defines which wireless security solution?
A. Dynamic WEP
B. 802.1X/EAP
C. 64-bit static WEP
D. Temporal Key Integrity Protocol
E. CCMP/AES
Answer: C
118. ABC Company performs government contract work that requires disabling WLANs and has
recently purchased an 802.11 Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) to enforce their
“NO WIRELESS” network security policy.
What attack type cannot be recognized by the WIPS?
A. Deauthentication
B. Rogue APs installation
C. Layer 3 DoS
D. Packet capturing
E. RF jamming
Answer: D
119. Which of these client radios will be able to transmit in the U-NII-5 band?
A. Wi-Fi 4 client radios
B. Wi-Fi 5 client radios
C. Wi-Fi 6 client radios
D. Wi-Fi 6E client radios
E. Wi-Fi 7 client radios
Answer: D
120. XYZ Company has decided to install an 802.11 WLAN system that will support 1000
wireless users, but they are concerned about network security.
XYZ is interested in deploying standardized security features. In addition to WPA2-Enterprise
with PEAP and role-based access control, XYZ would like to support management frame
 35 / 39
protection as well as a fast secure roaming protocol for future mobile handsets.
As XYZ Company selects a product to deploy, what two IEEE amendments, which are included
in 802.11-2012, should be supported to provide the management frame protection and fast
secure roaming security features? (Choose 2)
A. 802.11j
B. 802.11p
C. 802.11r
D. 802.11u
E. 802.11w
F. 802.11z
Answer: CE
121. Hybrid Coordination Function (HCF) defines what allotted period of time in which a station
can transmit multiple frames?
A. Block acknowledgment
B. Polling
C. Virtual carrier sense
D. Physical carrier sense
E. TXOP
Answer: E
122. Which of these 802.11 technologies can operate in the 2.4 GHz frequency band? (Choose
all that apply.)
A. 802.11a (OFDM radios)
B. 802.11b (HR-DSSS radios)
C. 802.11g (ERP radios)
D. 802.11n (HT radios)
E. 802.11ac (VHT radios)
F. 802.11ax (HE radios)
Answer: BCDF
123. The most common technologies in WPANs are ________ and _______ . (Choose two)
A. Bluetooth
B. Cellular
C. Infrared
D. WiMAX
 36 / 39
Answer: AC
124. The PSE will apply a voltage of between 14.5 and 20.5 and measure the resulting current
to determine the class of the device.
Which current range represents Class 2 devices?
A. 0 to 4 mA
B. 5 to 8 mA
C. 9 to 12 mA
D. 13 to 16 mA
E. 17 to 20 mA
Answer: E
125. Thirty 2×2:2 access points have been deployed at a school where all the client devices are
1×1:1 802.11n tablets. The access points are transmitting on 20 MHz channels with the
standard guard interval of 800 ns.
What is the highest 802.11n data rate that can be used for communications between the APs
and tablets?
A. 54 Mbps
B. 65 Mbps
C. 72 Mbps
D. 150 Mbps
E. 300 Mbps
Answer: B
126. The height or power of a wave is known as what?
A. Phase
B. Frequency
C. Amplitude
D. Wavelength
Answer: C
127. A client STA must choose the best AP for connectivity. As part of the evaluation, it must
verify compatible data rates.
What can the client STA use to verify that an AP supports the same data rates that it supports?
A. Beacon frames transmitted by the AP
B. Data frames sent between the AP and current clients STAs
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C. Authentication frames transmitted by the other client STAs
D. Probe request frames transmitted by other client STAs
Answer: A
Explanation:
The client STA can use Beacon frames transmitted by the AP to verify that an AP supports the
same data rates that it supports. Beacon frames are management frames that are periodically
broadcasted by the APs to announce their presence, capabilities, and parameters. One of the
information elements contained in the Beacon frames is the Supported Rates or Extended
Supported Rates, which lists the data rates that the AP can use for communication. The client
STA can compare its own data rates with those advertised by the AP to determine if they are
compatible. Data frames, authentication frames, and probe request frames do not contain
information about data rates.
Reference: [CWNP Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide: Exam
CWNA-109], page 133; [CWNA: Certified Wireless Network Administrator Official Study Guide:
Exam CWNA-109], page 123.
 
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