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ISO-IEC-27001 Foundation Exam
ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam
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1.Which statement is a factor that will influence the implementation of the information security
management system?
A. The ISMS will be separate from the organization's overall management structure
B. The ISMS will encompass all controls specified within ISO/IEC 27001
C. The ISMS will be scaled to the controls according to the needs of the organization
D. The ISMS will be operated as an independent process within the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 makes clear that the ISMS is intended to be tailored to the organization. The standard
states: “This document also includes requirements for the assessment and treatment of information
security risks tailored to the needs of the organization. The requirements set out in this document are
generic and are intended to be applicable to all organizations regardless of type, size or nature.” This
means implementation is scaled based on each organization’s risk, context, and needs, not a fixed
one-size-fits-all set of activities or controls. Clause 6.1.3 further reinforces that control selection is flexible
and risk-driven: “Organizations can design controls as required or identify them from any source,” and
“Annex A contains a list of possible information security controls… The information security controls listed
in Annex A are not exhaustive and additional information security controls can be included if needed.”
Together, these extracts verify that the ISMS implementation is influenced by and scaled to the
organization’s needs and selected controls, not separated from management processes (A, D) nor
mandated to include “all controls” (B).
2.Which factor is required to be determined when understanding the organization and its context?
A. Internal issues affecting the purpose of the ISMS
B. The information security objectives relevant to the ISMS
C. The processes that will be required to operate the ISMS
D. The ISO/IEC 27001 clauses which apply to the management system
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 4.1 specifies exactly what must be determined when establishing context: “The organization shall
determine external and internal issues that are relevant to its purpose and that affect its ability to achieve
the intended outcome(s) of its information security management system.” This requirement is about
understanding internal and external issues (e.g., culture, capabilities, regulatory environment) that
influence the ISMS’s effectiveness. Objectives (option B) are addressed later in Clause 6.2; processes
(option C) are addressed in Clause 4.4 and operational planning; and “which clauses apply” (option D) is
not a determination step—ISO/IEC 27001’s requirements in Clauses 4–10 are not optional. Therefore, the
direct, required factor per 4.1 is determining internal (and external) issues relevant to the organization’s
purpose and ISMS outcomes.
3.Which audit activity related to ISO/IEC 27001 may be carried out by a practitioner?
A. Conduct a surveillance audit of their own area of the organization
B. Conduct an internal audit of the organization
C. Conduct an audit of an Accredited Training Organization
D. Conduct an audit of a Certification Body
Answer: B
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Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 requires internal audits and sets out how they must be conducted: “The organization shall
conduct internal audits at planned intervals…” (9.2.1) and “plan, establish, implement and maintain an
audit programme(s)… [and] select auditors and conduct audits that ensure objectivity and the impartiality
of the audit process” (9.2.2). These extracts confirm that practitioners (internal to the organization) can
conduct internal audits provided objectivity and impartiality are ensured (e.g., they do not audit their own
work). Surveillance audits (option A) and audits of Accredited Training Organizations or Certification
Bodies (options C, D) are third-party activities outside the remit of an internal practitioner under ISO/IEC
27001; the standard’s audit requirement is focused on the organization’s own internal audit programme.
Therefore, conducting an internal audit (B) is the correct practitioner activity per Clause 9.2.
4.Which activity is a required element of information security risk identification?
A. Determine the risk owners
B. Consider the likelihood of the occurrence
C. Prioritize the risk for treatment
D. Determine the level of risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 defines the mandatory elements of risk assessment. Under risk identification, the standard
requires: “identifies the information security risks: 1) apply the information security risk assessment
process to identify risks…; and 2) identify the risk owners.” By contrast, considering likelihood and
determining levels of risk (options B and D) are part of risk analysis (6.1.2 d) “assess the realistic
likelihood…”; “determine the levels of risk”), and prioritization for treatment (option C) is part of risk
evaluation (6.1.2 e) “prioritize the analysed risks for risk treatment”). Therefore, the specific activity that
belongs to risk identification is to identify the risk owners. This sequencing is prescribed to ensure each
risk has a designated owner responsible for decisions on treatment and acceptance downstream.
5.In an audit, what is the definition of an observation?
A. A non-fulfilment of a requirement of ISO/IEC 27001
B. A conformity to the standard where there is an opportunity for improvement
C. An issue excluded from the scope of the standard
D. An issue raised by an interested party
Answer: B
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27001 mandates internal audits (Clause 9.2) and continual improvement (Clause 10.1) but does
not define the specific audit term “observation.” However, the audit framework in 9.2 requires an audit
programme and impartial auditors, and management review inputs include “feedback on the information
security performance including trends in… audit results” and “opportunities for continual improvement.”
The companion implementation guidance (ISO/IEC 27002) reinforces the concept of opportunities for
improvement in the review of policies: “The reviews should include assessing opportunities for
improvement and the need for changes to the approach to information security…” In practical ISO audit
usage (aligned with ISO 19011 guidance referenced in the Study Guide), an observation is a recorded
conformity where improvement is advisable—commonly termed an Opportunity for Improvement (OFI).
The Study Guide’s internal audit section emphasizes running an audit programme to identify “potential
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areas of weakness or non-compliance,” supporting the notion of recording improvement opportunities
alongside nonconformities. Therefore, within ISO/IEC 27001 audit practice, the best-fit definition is B: a
conformity where there is an opportunity for improvement.
6.In which clause would the requirements for internal audit be found?
A. Planning
B. Operation
C. Performance Evaluation
D. Improvement
Answer: C
Explanation:
The requirements for internal audit are explicitly placed in Clause 9.2 (Performance Evaluation) of
ISO/IEC 27001:2022.
The standard requires:
“The organization shall conduct internal audits at planned intervals to provide information on whether the
information security management system… conforms to the organization’s own requirements… and to
the requirements of this document.” (9.2.1)
“The organization shall plan, establish, implement and maintain an audit programme(s)…” (9.2.2)
This clause clearly falls under Performance Evaluation (Clause 9), not Planning (Clause 6), Operation
(Clause 8), or Improvement (Clause 10). Therefore, the correct answer is C.
7.Which output isa required result from risk analysis?
A. Risk acceptance criteria
B. Determined levels of risk
C. Risk treatment control options
D. Prioritized risks for treatment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.2 (d) states that during risk analysis, the organization shall:
“assess the potential consequences that would result if the risks identified… were to materialize;” “assess
the realistic likelihood of the occurrence of the risks identified;” “determine the levels of risk.”
This makes it clear that the required output of risk analysis is the determined levels of risk. Risk
acceptance criteria (A) are set earlier in 6.1.2(a), treatment control options (C) belong to 6.1.3, and
prioritization (D) is part of risk evaluation (6.1.2 e). Therefore, the verified correct output is B: Determined
levels of risk.
8.Identify the missing word in the following sentence.
The organization shall determine the [ ? ] of interested parties relevant to information security.
A. requirements
B. number
C. structure
D. influence
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Clause 4.2 of ISO/IEC 27001:2022 states:
“The organization shall determine: a) interested parties that are relevant to the information security
management system; b) the relevant requirements of these interested parties; c) which of these
requirements will be addressed through the ISMS.”
This confirms that the missing word is requirements. Neither number, structure, nor influence are
specified in the standard.
9.What is the name of the control clause used to control information security breaches within Annex A of
ISO/IEC 27001?
A. Information security event reporting
B. Information security event management
C. Response to information security events
D. Reporting information security incidents
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract ISO/IEC 27002:2022 standards:
Annex A in ISO/IEC 27001 refers directly to ISO/IEC 27002 for control guidance. In ISO/IEC 27002:2022,
Clause 6.8 is titled:
“Information security event reporting – Information security events should be reported through appropriate
management channels as quickly as possible.”
This control ensures breaches, incidents, or suspected issues are reported for action. The other options
(B, C, D) are not the exact titles in Annex
A. The official title is Information security event reporting, confirming Answer A.
10.Identify the missing word(s) in the following sentence.
When planning the ISMS, the organization is specifically required to plan actions to address risks and
opportunities and how to [ ? ] these actions.
A. communicate
B. apply competent resources to
C. improve the effectiveness of
D. evaluate the effectiveness of
Answer: D
Explanation:
Clause 6.1.1 (Planning) states:
“The organization shall plan:
d) actions to address these risks and opportunities; and e) how to:
integrate and implement the actions into its ISMS processes; and evaluate the effectiveness of these
actions.”
This confirms the missing words are “evaluate the effectiveness of”. Communication (A), applying
resources (B), and improving effectiveness (C) are important concepts elsewhere but not the direct
requirement stated in this clause.
	ISO-IEC-27001 Foundation Exam
	ISO/IEC 27001 (2022) Foundation Exam 
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