100 đề luyện thi vào lớp 10 chuyên anh có đáp án

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PART ONE: PHONETICS 
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others )
	1. A. supposedly		B. markedly		C. allegedly 		D. determinedly
	2. A. endure		B. feature			C. procedure		D. measure
	3. A. complete		B. command		C. common			D. community
	4. A. comb			B. climb			C. debt			D. cable
	5. A. neighbour		B. height			C. sleigh			D. weight
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others 
	1. A. possibility		B. disappointed		C. manufacture		D. instrument
	2. A. environment	B. mystery			C. contribute		D. terrific
	3. A. deficiency		B. psychology		C. ecological		D. competitor
	4. A. recommend		B. difficulty		C. admirable		D. document
	5. A. encouragement 	B. interviewer		C. acknowledge		D. miraculously
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR 
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences 
1. Only after the atomic bomb ________ and development in the air travel _______, ______ science fiction really become popular.
A. had created/ had taken off/ was		B. had been created/ had been taken off/ has	
C. had been created/ had taken off/ did 	D. had been created/ / had taken off/ had
2. We’ve bought some ________ chairs for the garden so that they are easy to store away.
A. adapting		B. adjusting		C. bending			D. folding
3. I don’t think she can get her message _______ to the students. She seems too nervous.
A. across			B. around			C. out			D. over
4. _______, it is obvious that the whole thing was a waste of time and effort.
	A. None of us wanted to go in the first place
	B. Staff meetings are often boring and have no apparent point to them
	C. Since the results were far more satisfactory than anyone had expected
	D. Seeing that we couldn’t solve anything in the end
5. There are ______ words in English having more than one meaning. Pay close attention to this fact.
	A. a large many		B. quite many		C. a great many		D. quite a lot
6. This car has many features including _________.
	A. stereo, safety devices, air condition, and it saves gas
	B. good music, safety devices, air conditioning, and gas
	C. stereo, safety devices, air conditioned, and good gas
	D. stereo, safety devices, air conditioning, and low gas mileage
7. Round and round ___________.
	A. the wheels of the engine went			B. did the wheels of the engine go
	C. went the wheels of the engine			D. going the wheels of the engine 
8. The replacement of shops such as the groceries and chemists’ by the café _______ the housewives with insufficient facilities for shopping.
	A. leave			B. have left			C. has left			D. to have left
9. Your argument _______ that Britain is still a great power, but this is no longer the case.
	A. outlines			B. presupposes		C. concerns			D. presents
10. They are happily married although, of course, they argue _______.
	A. most times 		B. from day to day	C. every now and then	D. on the occasion
11. He promised to mend the broken wheel soon without ___________ .
A. fail			B. failure			C. trouble			D. mistake
12. One of the first exercises in math class is ______ measure the radius of a circle.
	A. to learn and 	B. to learn how to	C. learning to		D. learn to
13. We were shocked to hear the news of your ________.
	A. having fired		B. being fired 	C. having been fired	D. to have been fired
14. I don’t know French, but I’ll ________.
	A. get Tom to translate it				B. have it translate 
	C. have Tom to translate it				D. make it translate
15. _______ as taste is really a composite sense made up of both taste and smell.
	A. That we refer to					B. What we refer to
	C. To which we refer					D. What do we refer to
16. _______ have settled, one of their first concerns has been to locate an adequate water supply.
	A. Wherever people					B. There are people who 
	C. Where people						D. People
17. Politicians should never lose ______ of the needs of the people they represent.
	A. view 	B. sight 	C. regard 	D. prospect 
18. _______ team sports require cooperation. 
	A. Of all			B. They are all		C. Why all are		D. All
19. Studies indicate _________ collecting art today than ever before.
	A. there are that more people 		B. more people that are
	C. that there are more people 		D. people there are more
20. Doctors advise people who are deficient __________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
	A. from B. of 	C. in D. for
21. Dick put ____ ball in ____ net in _____ second half but ____ goal was disallowed.
	A. a - a - a - a 				B. the - the - the - the	
	C. the - the - a - a 				D. a - a - the - the
22. There is a real possibility that these animals could be frightened _______ a sudden loud noise.
	A. being there 	B. should there be 	C. there was 	D. there have been
23. The computer has dramatically affected ______ photographic lenses are constructed.
	A. is the way B. that the way C. which way do 	D. the way
24. Six novels a year, you say? He’s certainly a __________ writer.
	A. fruitful			B. fertile			C. virile			D. prolific
25. The handwriting is completely ______ . This note must have been written a long time ago.
	A. inedible			B. indelible		C. illegible			D. unfeasible
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. 
a. The children were frightened because the lights suddenly (1.go) ________ out and they (2.sit) ________ in the dark. 
b. What tune (3. play) ________ when we (4. come) ________ in? 
c. She was badly hurt when her car hit another car. If she (5. wear) ________ her seat belt, she (6. not hurt) ________ so badly.
d. It is vital that no one else (7. know) _______ about the secret government operation.
e. It seems strange to be standing here, (8. look) _______ out at SydneyHarbor. 
f. Tom had a lucky escape. He (9. kill) ________ when a car crashed into the front of his house.
g. _____ (10. Rank) as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideals of the period in which it was created.
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
 It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may have solved. Until quite recently people got used to think that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy seems much more important. Egyptologists have often asked them how long it spent to build them and why people built them in first place. Experts came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have believed in the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids are in promotion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was by the chance. Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberately being project through shafts to reach at their goal of the Orion constellation.
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets.(1.5 pt)
It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face (1. INTERACT) ______ and with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has undergone a dramatic transformation, not for all the good. Email, while (2. DOUBT) _____ a swift means of communication providing your server is fully (3.FUNCTION) ______ and that the address you have contains no (4. ACCURATE) _____ has had a (5. SIGNIFY) _____ effect on certain people’s behaviour, both at home and business. For those people, the use of email has become irresistibly (6. ADDICT) _____ to the extent that it is (7. THREAT) _____ their mental and physical health. Addicts spend their day (8. COMPULSION) _____ checking for email and have a (9. TEND) ______ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and receiving messages, the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative effect on (10. PRODUCE)________ is something employers are well aware of.
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the following questions.(2.0 pts)
	In the United States in the early 1800's, individual state governments had more effect on the economy than did the federal government. States chartered manufacturing, banking, mining, and transportation firms and participated in the construction of various internal improvements such as canals, turnpikes, and railroads. The states encouraged internal improvements in two distinct ways; first, by actually establishing state companies to build such improvements; second, by providing part of the capital for mixed public-private companies setting out to make a profit. 	
	In the early nineteenth century, state governments also engaged in a surprisingly large amount of direct regulatory activity, including extensive licensing and inspection programs. Licensing targets reflected both similarities and differences between the economy of the nineteenth century and that of today: in the nineteenth century, state regulation through licensing fell especially on peddlers, innkeepers, and retail merchants of various kinds. The perishable commodities of trade generally came understate inspection, and such important frontier staples as lumber and gunpowder were also subject to state control. Finally, state governments experimented with direct labor and business regulation designed to help the individual laborer or consumer, including setting maximum limits on hours of work and restrictions on price-fixing by businesses. 
Although the states dominated economic activity during this period, the federal government was not inactive. Its goals were the facilitation of western settlement and the development of native industries. Toward these ends, the federal government pursued several courses of action. It established a national bank to stabilize banking activities in the country and, in part, to provide a supply of relatively easy money to the frontier, where it was greatly needed for settlement. It permitted access to public western lands on increasingly easy terms, culminating in the Homestead Act of 1862, by which title to land could be claimed on the basis of residence alone. Finally, it set up a system of tariffs that was basically protectionist in effect, although maneuvering for position by various regional interests produced frequent changes in tariff rates throughout the nineteenth century.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
	A. States's rights versus federal rights.
	B. The participation of state governments in railroad, canal, and turnpike construction.
	C. The roles of state and federal governments in the economy of the nineteenthcentury.
	D. Regulatory activity by state governments.
2. The word “effect” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to __________.
	A. value 		B. argument 		C. influence 		D. restraint
3. All of the following are mentioned in the passage as areas that involved statevernments in the nineteenth century EXCEPT _________. 
	A. mining 		B. banking 		C. manufacturing 	D. higher education
4. The word “distinct” in bold in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to_________. 
	A. separate 		B. innovative 		C. alarming 		D. provocative
5. It can be inferred from the first paragraph that in the nineteenth century canals and railroads were _________.
	A. built with money that came from the federal government
	B. much more expensive to build than they had been previously
	C. built predominantly in the western part of the country
	D. sometimes built in part by state companies
6. The regulatory activities of state governments included all of the following EXCEPT_______.
	A. licensing of retail merchants		B. inspecting materials used in turnpike maintenance
	C. imposing limits on price-fixing		D. control of lumber
7. The word “setting” in bold in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________. 
	A. discussing 	B. analyzing 		C. establishing 	D. avoiding
8. The word “ends” in bold in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ________.
	A. benefits 		B. decisions 		C. services 		D. goals
9. According to the passage, which of the following is true of the Homestead Act of 1862?
	A. It made it increasingly possible for settlers to obtain land in the West.
	B. It was a law first passed by state governments in the West.
	C. It increased the money supply in the West.
	D. It established tariffs in a number of regions.
10. Which of the following activities was the responsibility of the federal government in the nineteenth century?
	A.Control of the manufacture of gunpowder.
	B. Determining the conditions under which individuals worked.
	C. Regulation of the supply of money.
	D. Inspection of new homes built on western lands.
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
The British are widely (1) _____ to be a very polite nation, and in (2)______ respects this is true. An Italian journalist once commented of the British that they need (3) _____ fewer than four “thank you” merely to buy a bus ticket. The first, from the bus conductor means, “I’m here.” The second accompanies the handing over of the money. The third, again from the conductor, (4) ____ “Here is your ticket.”, and then the passenger utters a final one as he accepts the tickets. Such transactions in most (5) ____ parts of the world are usually conducted in total silence. In sharp contrast to this excessive politeness with strangers, the British are strangely lacking (6) _____ ritual phrases for social interaction. The exhortation “Good appetite”, uttered in so (7) ______ other languages to fellow-diners before a meal, does not exist in English. The nearest equivalent – Enjoy your dinner! – is said only by people who will not be partaking of the meal in question. What’s more, the British (8) ____ happiness to their friends or acquaintances only at the start of a new year and at (9)_____ such as birthdays, (10) _____ the Greeks routinely wish all and sundry a “good week” or a “good month”.
Your answers:
1._____________ 2._____________ 3._____________ 4._____________ 	5.____________
6._____________ 7._____________ 8._____________ 9._____________ 10.____________
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
Media and advertising
	After more than fifty years of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is here to (1) ______. There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and (2) ______ a variety of grounds. Did it cause eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with radioactivity? Did the advertisements contain subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more? Did children turn to violence through watching it, either because so (4) ______ programmes taught them how to shoot, rob, and kill, or because they had to do something to counteract the hours they had spent glued to the tiny screen? Or did it simply create a vast passive (5) ______ drugged by glamorous serials and inane situation (6) ______ ? On the other hand did it increase anxiety by sensationalizing the news [or the news which was (7) ______ by suitable pictures] and filling our living rooms with war, famine and political unrest? (8) ______ in all, television proved to be the all-purpose scapegoat for the second half of the century, blamed for everything, but above all, eagerly watched. For no (9) ______ how much we despised it, feared it, were bored by it, or felt that it took us away from the old paradise of family conversation and hobbies such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off. We kept staring at the screen, aware that our own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.
1. A. be			B. stay			C. exist			D. prolong
2. A. with			B. over			C. by				D. on
3. A. screen		B. danger			C. machine			D. reason
4. A. that			B. far				C. many			D. what
5. A. programmeB. personality		C. audience			D. tense
6. A. comedies		B. programmes		C. perhaps			D. consequently
7. A. taken			B. presented		C. capable			D. accompanied
8. A. Taken			B. All			C. Somewhat		D. Thus
9. A. one 			B. matter			C. difference		D. reason
10. A. fault			B. reflection		C. situation			D. consciousness
PART FOUR: WRITING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (2.0 pts)
1. If the work is finished by lunchtime, you can go home.
Get____________________________________________________________________________
2. You haven’t done your work, have you?
It’s about_______________________________________________________________________
3. The fourth time he asked her to marry him, she accepted.
Only on his _____________________________________________________________________
4. He said that he had won as a result of good luck.
He attributed____________________________________________________________________
5. That reminds me of the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji. 		
That takes me____________________________________________________________________
6. People rumour that he is rich but stingy.
What___________________________________________________________________________
7. Such a ridiculous proposal isn’t worth serious consideration.
There is_________________________________________________________________________
8. Just thinking about his face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very_________________________________________________________________________
9.We cannot see animals in a vast area after the forest fire.		
There is an_______________________________________________________________________
10.The staff hated Frank’s new policies so intensely that they went on strike.
So intense _______________________________________________________________________
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the brackets. Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
1. I suddenly realized the meaning of a “freebie”.(dawned)
_______________________________________________________________________________
2. After the scandal, he was asked to resign. (HAND)
_______________________________________________________________________________
3. Bruce said that the situation at work was like a family argument. (likened)
_______________________________________________________________________________
4. My father is not feeling well these days. (weather)
_______________________________________________________________________________
5. I don’t think this record will ever be popular. (catch)
_______________________________________________________________________________
6. His arrival was completely unexpected. (took)
_______________________________________________________________________________
7. The success of our local theater has made our city famous. (map)
_______________________________________________________________________________
8. He is certainly not a reliable witness. (means)
_______________________________________________________________________________
9. Our company is the only company allowed to import these chemicals. (monopoly)
_______________________________________________________________________________
10. It’s uncertain whether the band’s tour will take place. (BALANCE)
_______________________________________________________________________________
III. Essay writing (2.0 pts)
Some high schools require all students to wear school uniforms. Other high schools permit students to decide what to wear to school. Which of these two school policies do you think is better? 
In about 250 words, write an essay to expess your opinion, usingspecific reasons and examples to support your opinion.
(You may continue your writing on the back page if you need more space.)
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KEYS
PART ONE: PHONETICS (1.0 POINT)
I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently fromthat of the others. (0.5 pt)
1. D		2. A		3. C		4. D		5. B
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the others.(0.5 pt)
1. D		2. B		3. C		4. A		5. B
PART TWO: LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7.0 POINTS)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.(2.5pts)
1. C		2. D		3. A		4. D		5.C		6. D		7. C
8. C		9. B		10. C		11. A		12. B		13. C		14. A
15. B		16. A		17. B		18.D		19. C		20. C		21. B
22. B		23. D		24. D		25. C
II. Give the correct form or tense of the verbs in brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. had gone				2. were sitting			
3. was being played			4. came
5. had been wearing			6. wouldn’t have been hurt		
7. (should) know				8. looking
9. could have been killed		10. To be ranked
III. There are ten mistakes in the following passage. Find and correct them. (1.5 pt)
It seems that the mystery of why the Pyramids were built may (1. have solvedhave been solved). Until quite recently people got used (2. to thinkto thinking) that they were just tombs for pharaohs. Instead, the connection with astronomy (3.seem seems) much more important. Egyptologists have often asked (4. them themselves) how long it (5. spent took) to build them and why people built them in (6. first place the first place). Experts came up with a suggestion that the Egyptians may have (7. believed in believed that) the River Nile was the earthly equivalent of the Milky Way. Many agree that the sizes of the three Giza Pyramids are in propotion to the three stars of Orion. Nothing, then, was (8. by the chance by chance). Rather, the souls of dead pharaohs were deliberatedly being (9. project projected) through shafts to (10. reach at reach) their goal of the Orion constellation.
	No
	Line
	Mistake
	Correction
	1
	1
	 have solved
	have been solved
	2
	2
	to think
	to thinking
	3
	3
	seem
	seems
	4
	3
	them
	themselves
	5
	3
	spent
	took
	6
	4
	first place 
	the first place
	7
	5
	believed in
	believed that
	8
	7
	by the chance
	by chance
	9
	7
	project
	projected
	10
	8
	reach at
	reach
IV. Give the correct form of the word in each of the following brackets. (1.5 pt)
1. INTERACTION		2. UNDOUBTEDLY		3. FUNCTIONAL
4. INACCURACIES		5. SIGNIFICANT		6. ADDICTIVE
7. THREATENING		8. COMPULSIVELY		9. TENDENCY	
10. PRODUCTION
PART THREE: READING (6.0 POINTS)
I. Read the following passage and choose the option that indicates the correct answer to each of the following questions.(2.0 pts)
	1. C 	2. C 	3. D 		4. A 	5. D 	
	6. B 	7. C 	8. D 	9. A 	10. C
II. Read the text below and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. (2.0 pts)
1. considered 		2. some 		3. no 			4. means 			5. other
6. in 			7. many 		8. wish 		9. celebrations 		10. while 
III. Read the passage and choose the best option for each of the following blanks. (2.0 pts)
	1.B		2.D		3.A 		4.C		5.C 	
	6.B 		7.D		8.B		9.B		10.B
PART FOUR: WRITING (6 POINTS)
I. Rewrite the following sentences beginning with the given words. (2.0 pts)
1. Get the work finished by lunchtime and you can go home.
2. It’s about time you did your homework.
3. Only on his fourth proposal did she accept to marry him.
4. He attributed his win/ victory/ success/ achievement/ triumph to good luck.
5. That takes me back to the time I climbed to the top of Mount Fuji.
6. What people rumour is that he is rich but stingy.
7. There is no point in considering such a ridiculous proposal seriously.
8. The very thought of his face at that moment makes me laugh.
9.There is an absence of animals in a vastarea after the forest fire.
10. So intense was the hatred for Frank’s new policies that the staff went on strike.
II. Write a new sentence similar in meaning to the given one, using the word given in the brackets. Do not alter the word in any way. (2.0 pts)
1. It suddenly dawned on me what the meaning of a “freebie” was.
2. After the scandal, he was asked to hand in his resignation.
3. Bruce likened the situation at work to a family argument 
4. My father is feeling (a bit) under the weather these days.
5. I don’t think this record will ever catch on.
6. His arrival took us (completely) by surprise.
7. The success of our local theater has put our city on the map.
8. He is by no means a reliable witness.
 9. Our company has got the monopoly of/on/in importing these chemicals.
10. The band’s tour is in the balance.
III. Essay writing (2.0 pts) Marking scheme
Markers should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the papers. The mark given to part III is based on the following scheme: 
	
	Mô tả tiêu chíđánh giá
	Điểm tối đa
	1.
	Bố cục
	0.40
	
	 Câu đề dẫn phải thể hiện được rõ ý kiến của người viết
 Bố cục hợp lí, rõ ràng phù hợp với yêu cầu của đề bài và đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận.
 Bố cục uyển chuyển từ mở bài đến kết luận
	0.10
0.15
0.15
	2.
	Phát triển ý
	0.40
	
	 Phát triển ý có trình tự logic và mạch lạc
 Có giải thích, dẫn chứng, ví dụ xác thực đủđể bảo vệý kiến của người viết
	0.20
0.20
	3.
	Sử dụng ngôn ngữ
	0.40
	
	 Sử dụng ngôn từ phù hợp với nội dung của bài viết
 Sử dụng ngôn từđúng văn phong/ thể loại, đa dạng về từ vựng và cấu trúc.
 Sử dụng từ nối các ý cho bài viết uyển chuyển
	0.10
0.15
0.15
	4.
	Nội dung
	0.40
	
	Đủ thuyết phục người đọc
Đủ dẫn chứng, ví dụ, lập luận
Độ dài: Số từ không nhiều hơn hoặc ít hơn so với quy định 10 %
	0.15
0.15
0.10
	5.
	Ngữ pháp, dấu câu và chính tả
	0.40
	
	 Sử dụng đúng dấu câu
 Chính tả: Viết đúng chính tả
- Lỗi chính tả gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị tính một lỗi (trừ 1% điểm của bài viết)
- Cùng một lỗi chính tả lặp lại chỉ tính là một lỗi 
 Sử dụng đúng thời, thể, cấu trúc câu đúng ngữ pháp. (Lỗi ngữ pháp gây hiểu nhầm/ sai lệch ý sẽ bị trừ 1% điểm bài viết.)
	0.10
0.10
0.20
	
	Tổng
	2.00
ENGLISH PRACTICE 2
A. PHONETICS (10 points)
Question 1: Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)
01. A. random		B. canal		C. many		D. explanatory
02. A. good			B. moon		C. food			D. balloon
03. A. provide		B. product		C. production		D. procedure
04. A. kite			B. bite			C. Christian		D. Christ
05. A. voltage			B. voyage		C. massage		D. dosage
Question 2: Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (5p)
06. A. argumentative		B. psychological	C. contributory	D. hypersensitive
07. A. atomic			B. brilliant		C. determined		D. ambitious
08. A. trigonometry		B. explanatory	C. immediately	D. democracy
09. A. photograph		B. payroll		C. accent		D. regretful
10. A. majority		B. ceremony		C. astronomy		D. investiture
B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (60 points)
Question 3: Give the correct tense/ form of the verbs in the brackets. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below (30p)
a. It’s time we (11. go). If we (12. not leave) now, we (13. miss) the train.
b. I know I (14. not write) to you before, but I (15. be) so busy recently that I (16. not have) time for writing letters. I (17. telephone) you instead, but I (18. forget) your number.
c. Why didn’t you tell me you could lend me the money? I (19. not borrow) it from the bank.
d. He is walking (20. hurry) to the place where his ex-wife, a famous naturalist now (21. lie) (22. bury) among the animals she (23. love) so much.
e. We will see Alice at the corner, she (24. wait) for us when we (25. arrive).
f. He resents (26. be) (27. tell) what (28. do).
g. Her mother (29. go) abroad last month, so it (30. not be) her you see at the theater last Sunday.
Question 4: The passage below contains 10 errors. IDENTIFY and CORRECT them. (0) has been done as an example. Write your answers in the numbered blanks below (20p)
Question 5: Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (10p)
41. We’re all very obliged_________ you
42. When the wound has healed_________ you can remove the plaster.
43. Without a fridge, fresh food will go_________ very quickly.
44. I’m faithful_________ my principle.
45. I haven’t heard_________ Mandy since she wrote in July.
46. This service is free_________ charge.
47. They went ahead contrary_________ my advice.
48. The weather was fine, and everyone was making_________ the coast. 
49. We’re going_________ Tom’s car tomorrow.
50. Have a card_________ your sleeve.
C. READING (40 points)
Question 6: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (20p)
In addition to the great ridges and volcanic chains, the oceans conceal another form of undersea mountains: the strange guyot, or flat-topped seamount. No marine geologist even suspected the existence of these isolated mountains until they were discovered by geologist Harry H. Hess in 1946. He was serving at the time as naval officer on a ship equipped with a fathometer. Hess named these truncated peaks for the nineteenth-century Swiss-born geologist Arnold Guyot, who had served on the faculty of Princeton University for thirty years. Since then, hundreds of guyots have been discovered in every ocean but the Arctic. Like offshore canyons, guyots present a challenge to oceanographic theory. They are believed to be extinct volcanoes. Their flat tops indicate that they once stood above or just below the surface, where the action of waves leveled off their peaks. Yet today, by definition, their summits are at least 600 feet below the surface, and some are as deep as 8,200 feet. Most lie between 3,200 feet and 6,500 feet. Their tops are not really flat but slope upward to a low pinnacle at the center. Dredging from the tops of guyots has recovered basalt and coral rubble, and that would be expected from the eroded tops of what were once islands. Some of this material is over 80 million years old. Geologists think the drowning of the guyots involved two processes: The great weight of the volcanic mountains depressed the sea floor beneath them, and the level of the sea rose a number of times, especially when the last Ice Age ended, some 8,000 to 11.000 years ago.
51. What is the author's main purpose in writing this passage?
A. To trace the career of Arnold Guyot.
B. To describe feature of the undersea world.
C. To present the results of recent geologic research.
D. To discuss underwater ridges and volcano chains
52. The word “conceal” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. Contain		B. Erode			C. Hide		D. Create
53. The passage implies that guyots were first detected by means of________.
A. a fathometer					B. computer analysic
C. a deep-sea diving expedition			D. research submarines
54. The author indicates that Arnold Guyot________.
A. was Harry Hess's instructor			B. invented the fathometer
C. named the guyed after himself			D. taught at Princeton University
55. What does the passage say about the Arctic Ocean?
A. The first guyot was discovered there.
B. No guyots have ever been found there.
C. There are more guyots there than in any other ocean.
D. It is impossible that guyots were ever formed there.
56. The author states that offshore canyons and guyots have which of the following characteristics in common?
A. Both are found on the ocean floor near continental shelves.
B. Both present oceanographers with a mystery.
C. Both were formed by volcanic activity.
D. Both were, at one time, above the surface of the sea.
57. According to the passage, most guyots are found at a depth of________.
A. lessthan 600 feet.					B. between 600 and 3,200 feet.
C. between 3,200 and 6,500 feet			D. more than 8,200 feet
51. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “rubble”?
A. Fragments		B. Mixture			C. Columns		D. Core
51. According to the passage, which of the following two processes were involved in the submersion of guyots?
A. Erosion and volcanic activity.
B. The sinking of the sea floor and the rising of sea level.
C. Mountain building and the action of ocean currents
D. High tides and earthquakes
60. According to the passage, when did sea level significantly rise?
A. In 1946						B. In the nineteenth century
C. From 8,000 to 11,000 years			D. 80 million years ago
Question 7: Read the following passage and choose the best answer. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (20p)
As Christmas evolved in the United States, new customs were adopted and many old ones were reworked. The legend of Santa Claus, for example, had origins in Europe and was brought by Dutch settlers to New York in the early 18th century. Traditionally, Santa Claus - from the Dutch Sinter Klaas - was depicted as a tall, dignified, religious figure riding a white horse through the air. Known as Saint Nicholas in Germany, he was usually accompanied by Black Peter, an elf who punished disobedient children. In North America he eventually developed into a fat, jolly old gentleman who had neither the religious attributes of Saint Nicholas nor the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
Santa’s transformation began in 1823, when a New York newspaper published the poem A Visit from Saint Nicholas, which Clement Clark Moore had written to amuse his daughter. The poem introduced many Americans to the story of a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a reindeer-drawn sleigh. Portraits and drawings of Santa Claus by American illustrator Thomas Nast further strengthened the legend during the second half of the 19th century. Living at the North Pole and assisted by elves, the modern Santa produced and delivered toys to all good children. By the late 19th century he had become such a prominent figure of American folklore that in 1897, when Virginia O’Hanlon wrote to the New York Sun newspaper asking if Santa was real, she received a direct answer: “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus”.
61. Who brought the legend of Santa Claus to the USA according to the passage?
A. Sinter Klaas	B. Saint Nicholas		C. A German		D. Dutch settlers
62. Santa Claus was traditionally described as a________.
A. tall man who could walk through the air.	B. fat, jolly, old man.
C. religious figure.					D. fat man riding a white horse.
63. Santa Claus in North America was depicted as________.
A. a man with the strict disciplinarian character of Black Peter.
B. a good old man with less religious character.
C. one with religious attributes of Saint Nicholas.
D. a jolly man on horseback.
64. Who was Black Peter?
A. an elf accompanying Saint Nicholas.		B. an elf who rode a white horse.
C. one of the disobedient children.			D. a popular traditional figure.
65. What word is closest in meaning to “attributes”?
A. symbols of a person	B. natural qualities	C. effects	D. outer appearance
66. Where did the legend of Santa Claus come from?
A. the North Pole	B. Europe		C. North America	D. the City of New York
67. 1823 was mentioned as a year when________.
A. Clement Clark Moore wrote his first poem
B. Clement Clark Moore’s poem made him popular
C. Saint Nicholas visited New York
D. the image of Santa Claus was transformed
68. According to Clement Clark Moore’s poem
A. Santa Claus had nothing different in appearance from the traditional one.
B. Santa Claus had wings and could fly.
C. Santa Claus liked poetry.
D. Santa Claus was a kindly saint who flew over housetops in a sleigh.
69. The answer “Yes, Virginia, there is a Santa Claus” is an illustration for the fact that________.
A. the New York Sun was popular with children.
B. Santa Claus was a prominent figure at that time.
C. newspapers are unreliable.
D. Virginia O’Hanlon was a reader of the New York Sun
70. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Santa Claus was an imaginary old man created by artists based on traditional figures.
B. Living in the North Pole, Santa Claus visited children at Christmas.
C. Santa Claus was a real figure living in northern America.
D. Santa Claus was a story based on Saint Nicholas and Black Peter.
D. USE OF ENGLISH (30 points)
Question 8: Choose the word that best fits each of the blanks in the following passage. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)
Vietnamese generally shake hands when greeting and parting. Using both hands shows respect as does a (71)________ bow of the head. In rural areas, elderly people do not extend their hand are greeted with a bow. Women are more (72)________ to bow the head than to shake hands. Vietnamese names begin with the family name and are (73)________ by a given name. For example, in the name Nguyen Van Due, Nguyen is the family name. People address (74)________ by their given names, but add a title that indicates their perceived (75)________ to the other person. These titles are family related rather than professional. Among colleagues, for example, the (76)________ of the two might combine the given name with the title of Anh ("Older Brother"). A(n) (77)________ greeting combined with the given name and title is Xin chao ("Hello."). Classifiers for gender and familiarity are also combined with the greeting. In formal meetings, business cards are sometimes (78)________ on greeting.
Vietnamese people have a strong (79)________ of hospitality and feel embarrassed if they cannot show their guests full respect by preparing for their arrival. Therefore, it (80)________ to visit someone without having been invited. Gifts are not required, but are appreciated. Flowers, incense, or tea may be proper gifts for the hosts. Hosts also appreciate a small gift for their children or elderly parents
71. A. light			B. slight			C. lightly		D. lighted
72. A. possible		B. capable			C. probable		D. likely
73. A. continued		B. chased			C. followed		D. taken
74. A. each one		B. one other			C. one the other 	D. one another
75. A. relation			B. relationship		C. relation		D. relatives
76. A. younger		B. most young		C. youngest		D. young
77. A. easy			B. basic			C. fundamentally 	D. elementary
78. A. changed		B. transferred			C. reserved		D. exchanged
79. A. sense			B. sensation			C. sensitivity		D. sensible
80. A. inactive			B. inaccurate			C. inappropriate 	D. inexact
Question 9: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answers in the numbered blanks provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. (10p)
Cell Phones
Cell phones have been popular in Japan (0. since) the early 1990s, but it was (81)________ until 1999 that their use really took off. The age of cell phones has emerged, but with it come problems.
Cell phones are used on buses and trains, in restaurants, and in all areas of (82)________. They cause problems when they (82)________ during meetings, concerts, weddings, or even funerals. What's more, people speak loudly in public, and students read and text messages during lessons. (83)________ seriously, when a cell phone is used near a person (84)________ a pacemaker to fegulate his heartbeat, its radio waves may interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker.
Now, something is being done to solve these (86)________. In many places, new technology is being used to block cell phone calls. Airline (87)________ are requested to stop using cell phones while on board. Concert halls ask their audience to switch their phones to the (88)________ mode. However, phone users fear that if they do not (89)________ their phones, they will lose valuable business opportunities. That's why many do not (90)________ off their phones even when they are asked to.
Question 10: Write the correct FORM of each bracketedword. Write your answers in the numbered spaces provided below. (10p)
91. Those (theatre) group has never lost its appeal.
92. Dolphins, (mammal) species, sometimes jump above the surface of the water.
93. The situation is so (chaos) in some countries now that it is difficult to see any solution
94. He’s the most (please), ill-mannered person I’ve ever met.
95. Good friends can enrich the quality of our lives (measure).
96. This famous singer had two (enter) in the Guinness Book of World Records.
97. Beauty is in the eye of the (hold).
98. Computers are now considered (dispense) in the business world.
99. Due to (electric) the difference between urban life and rural life is more and more reduced.
100. A doctor may prescribe (biotic) if the patient has an infection. 
E. WRITING (30p)
Question 11: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it (10p).
101. Someone stole the old lady’s handbag.
→ The old lady was .........................................................................................
102. A true story forms the basis of Mary’s new novel.
→ Mary’s new novel .........................................................................................
103. If you have completed your test, you can go home.
→ Get ......................................................................................................................
104. Absolute secrecy was crucial to the success of the mission.
→ Without ............................................................................................................
105. Something must be done to solve this problem.
→ Urgent .......................................................................................... ....................
Question 12: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it is as similar its possible in meaning to the original sentence. Use the word given and other words as necessary. Do not change the form of the given word (10p).
106. The job received over a hundred applications. 			(APPLIED)
→ .......................................................................................................................
107. Alan prides himself on his punctuality.				(TAKES)
→ .......................................................................................................................
108. Many people attended this year’s festival. 				(TURNOUT)
→ .......................................................................................................................
109. He is becoming quite famous as an interviewer. 			(NAME)
→ .......................................................................................................................
110. The whole team was in a happy mood. 				(SPIRITS)
→ .......................................................................................................................
Question 13: Writing an essay (40p)
It is widely believed nowadays that social knowledge and the ability to adapt in a changing society make a school-leaver succeed in getting a job.
What do you think about the saying?
Write an essay of around 250 words to prove your points.
_____________THE END_____________
KEYS
A. PHONETICS (10p)
Question 1: (5p)	01. C	02. A	03. B	04. C	05. C
Question 2: (5p)	06. C	07. B	08. A	09. D	10. B
B. GRAMMAR & VOCABULARY (20p)
Question 3: (10p)
11. went 	12. don’t leave	13. will miss		14. shouldn’t/ oughtn’t have written 
15. have been 16. haven’t had 	17. should/would have telephoned 	18. have forgot(ten)
19. needn’t have borrowed		20. hurrying 		21. lies 		22. buried 
23. loved	24. will be waiting 	25. arrive		26. being 		27. told 
28. to do	29. went 		30. can’t/ couldn’t have been
Question 4: (10p)
31. visiting → to visit		32. no → not		33. right address → the right address
34. their → its			35. up → down	36. had → had been
37. risen → raised		38. extending → extended
39. previous → previously	40. untidy gravel yard → an untidy gravel yard 
Question 5: (5p)
41. to		42. over	43. off		44. to		45. from	
46. of		47. to		48. for		49. in		50. Up
C. READING (20p)
Question 6: (10p)
51. B	52. C	53. A	54. D	55. B	56. B	57. C	58. A	59. B	60. C
Question 7: (10p)
61. D	62. C	63. B	64. A	65. A	66. B	67. D	68. D	69. B	70. A
D. USE OF ENGLISH (20p)
Question 8: (10p)
71. B	72. D	73. C	74. D	75. B	76. A	77. B	78. D	79. A	80. C
Question 9: (10p)
81. not		82. life			83. ring	84. More	85.using
86. problems	87. passengers	88. silent	89. answer	90. turn/switch 
Question 10: (10p)
91. theatrical	92. mammalian	93. chaotic	94. unpleasant	95. immeasurably	96. entries	97. beholder		98. Indispensable	99. Electrification 100. antibiotics
E. WRITING (30p)
Question 11: (10p)
101. The old lady was robbed of her hand bag.
102. Mary’s new novel is based on a true story.
103. Get your test completed/ finished and you can go home.
104. Without absolute secrecy this mission would not have succeeded/ been successful/ been a success/ would have failed.
105. Urgent action is/ measures are necessary/ essential to solve this problem.
Question 12: (10p)
106. Over a hundred people applied for the job.
107. Alan takes (a) pride in his punctuality.
108. This year’s festival attracted a record/ high turnout.
109. He is making quite a name for himself as an interviewer.
110. The whole team was in good spirits.
Question 13: (20p) ESSAY WRITING
___________THE END___________
ENGLISH PRACTICE 3
I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (7/20 points) 
Part 1: Choose the word or phrase that best completes each sentence. Write your answer (A, B, C, or D) in the numbered box. 
1. Sheila will inherit everything ________ her uncle’s death.
A. on account of 		B. in spite of 	C. in the event of 		D. in place of
2. His poor handling of the business ________ on negligence.
A. neared		 	B. edged 		C. approached 		D. bordered 
3. Down ________ for three days.
A. the rain poured					B. poured the rain 
C. did the rain pour 					D. do the rain poor
4. Can I ________ your brains for a moment? I can’t do this crossword by myself.
A. have			 B. pick		 C. mind		 	D. use 
5. The job wasn’t giving the ________ of the experience he wanted.
 A. width 		B. depth 	 C. length 		D. breadth
6. I suppose I could ________ advertising.
A. catch on			B. get out of		C. go in for			D. work out
7. The storm ripped our tent to ________.
A. slices 			B. shreds 		C. strips 			D. specks 
8. She travelled the world in ________ of her dreams. 
A. pursuit 		B. finding 		C. chase 			D. trail 
9. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.
A. charitable			B. donated		C. voluntary			D. free
10. Mike, _______, will you switch off that television!
A. once and for all					B. now and then	
C. over and above					D. from time to time
Your answers 
	1. 
	2. 
	3. 
	4. 
	5. 
	6. 
	7. 
	8. 
	9. 
	10. 
Part 2: Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word in the numbered space provided in the column on the right. 
	11. The (PLACE)_______ of natural resources is becoming inadequate 
 for the support of increasing population.
12. The grammar section provides coverage of all the most 
 (problem)_______ areas.
13. He has recorded the (narrate)______ for the production. 
14. In this profession, women (NUMBER)______ men by two to one.
15. An (LAY)_______ showing population can be placed on top of the 
 map.
16. The shells are so hard and they are virtually (DESTROY)_______.
17. We should arrive two days early in order to (CLIMATE)________.
18. These changes are likely to (POOR)________ single-parent families 
 even further.
19. I’m afraid the hospital is desperately (STAFF)______ at the moment.
20. This book will challenge your (CONCEPT)_______ about rural life.
	11. ________
12. ________
13. ________
14. ________
15. ________
16. ________
17. ________
18. ________
19. ________
20. ________
Part 3: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and correct them in the space provided in the column onthe right. (0) has been done as an example. 
	Human and primates, the family of apes, gorillas, and chimpanzees, among others, divide many common traits. 
While primates are deemed the most intelligent of animals, most researchers believed they lack the capacity to produce language. However, a research project in the 1970s at University of Georgia showed promise that chimpanzees have the ability to learn a certain language, just as human children do.
The project used several chimpanzees as test subjects in which Lana, a female chimp was the study focus. 
Though the primates lack the vocal constructions to make human speech patterns, the researchers created a language called Yerkish, using lexigram made up of symbols that represent sounds and words. 125 symbols were placed on a keyboard, which Lana was taught how to use the board to communicate with the researchers. She successfully expressed her thoughts by pressing different keys in succession. In some cases, she used up to seven at times.
	0. Humans
21. ____________
22. ____________
23. ____________
24. ____________
25. ____________
26. ____________
27. ____________
28. ____________
29. ____________
30. ____________
Part 4: Supply the correct form of the VERB in brackets to complete the passage. Write your answer in the numbered box. 
I don't normally go to the cinema. Not because I don't like it but because it's just a habit I (31.never GET)__________ into. However, on this occasion I (32. DECIDE)__________ to go because my friends (33. constantly GO)__________ on about this film all week and eventually wore me down. It was starring some ephemeral Hollywood actor whom I had vaguely heard of but couldn't put a face to. We got to the cinema early to find people (34. already WAIT)__________ outside, which suggested that my friends weren't the only ones who thought it was worth seeing although I could still think of several other things I would rather having been doing at that moment. In the end, the film (35. TURN)_________ out to be not half as bad as expected, though I (36. PREFER)__________ something with a bit more action. The plot centred on two men who were planning to carry out some immensely complicated robbery, though what they (37. completely FAIL) ___________ to realize was that all the time their plans (38. closely MONITOR) ____________ by the police. Somewhat unpredictably, however, they got away with it because they (39. CHANGE) _____________ their plans at the last minute. It was okay but I (40.not THINK)________ of going again.
Your answers 
	31. 
	36. 
	32. 
	37. 
	33. 
	38. 
	34. 
	39. 
	35. 
	40. 
Part 5: Fill each gap in the following sentences with one of the prepositions or particles in the box. Use each word only ONCE and write your answer in the numbered box. (Please note that the given words outnumber the gaps.)
	by
	through
	with
	for
	in
	out
	up
	into
	off
	across
	down
	beyond
41. He likes to show _________ how well he speaks French.
42. They were sad because the plan fell _________ at the last minutes. 
43. Ben is a true adventurer. He has climbed this country's highest mountain, canoed _________ the continent, and hiked through the Amazon jungle.
44. She wrote the book _________ collaboration with one of her students.
45. You'd better write _________ the appointment in your agenda, or you'll probably forget.
46. Mary has always looked _________ to her uncle, who is a very successful actor.
47. I do feel ________ you, honestly!
48. As I had put on weight, my dress was too tight so I had to let it ________ especially around the waist. 
49. I'm sorry but Dr. Ho sees patients _________ appointments only. 
50. He spoke _________ such assurance that we couldn't but believe him. 
Your answers 
	41. 
	46. 
	42. 
	47. 
	 43. 
	48. 
	44. 
	49. 
	45. 
	50. 
II. READING (6/ 20 points)
Part 1: Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example. 
	When faced (0)________ some new and possible bewildering technology change, most people (51)________ in one of two ways. They either recoil (52)________ anything new, claiming that it is unnecessary, or too complicated or that it (53)________ makes life less than human. Or they learn to adapt to the new invention and (54)________ wonder how they could possibly have existed (55)________ it. Take computers as example. For many of us, they still (56)________ a threat to our freedom and give us a frightening (57)________ of a future in which all decisions will be (58)________ by machines. This may be because they seem (59)________, and difficult to understand. Ask most people what you can use a home computer for, and you usually get vague answers about how ‘they give you information’. In fact, even those of us who are (60)________ with computer and use them in our daily work, have little idea of how they work. But it does not take long to learn how to operate a business programme, even if things occasionally go wrong for no apparent (61)________. Presumably, much the same happened when telephone and television became widespread. What seems to alarm most people is the (62)________ of technology change, (63)________ than change itself. And the objections that are made to new technology may (64)________ have a point to them, since change is not always an improvement. As we discover during power cuts, there is a lot to be said for the oil lamp, the coal fire, and forms of entertainment, such as books or board (65)________, which don’t have to be plugged into work.
0. 	A. with			B. to 			C. for			D. on
51. 	A. react		B. treat		C. solve		D. perform
52. 	A. of			B. out of		C. away from		D. from
53. 	A. somewhere	B. someplace		C. someway		D. somewhat	
54. 	A. eventually		B. possibly		C. initially		D. naturally
55. 	A. with			B. without		C. on			D. for
56. 	A. show		B. meet		C. face			D. represent
57. 	A. possibility		B. sense		C. idea			D. prospect
58. 	A. invented		B. changed		C. taken		D. done
59. 	A. unsteady		B. unsure		C. mysterious		D. obvious
60. 	A. accustomed	B. familiar		C. used		D. commonplace
61. 	A. reason		B. cue			C. excuse		D. cause
62. 	A. rate			B. swiftness		C. speed		D. tempo
63. 	A. more		B. less			C. rather		D. other
64. 	A. badly		B. better		C. worse		D. well
65. 	A. sports		B. games		C. plays		D. shows
Your answers 
0. A 
	51. 
	52. 
	53. 
	54. 
	55. 
	56. 
	57. 
	58. 
	59. 
	60. 
	61.
	62.
	63.
	64.
	65.
Part 2: Read the following passage and answer the questions from 66 to 75 that follow. 
The History of the Guitar
The word 'guitar' was brought into English as an adaptation of the Spanish word 'guitarra’, which was, in turn, derived from the Greek 'kithara'. Tracing the roots of the word further back into linguistic history, it seems to have been a combination of the Indo-European stem 'guit-’, meaning music, and the root '-tar’, meaning chord or string. The root '-tar' is actually common to a number of languages, and can also be found in the word 'sitar’, also a stringed musical instrument. Although the spelling and pronunciation differ between languages, these key elements have been present in most words for 'guitar' throughout history.
While the guitar may have gained most of its popularity as a musical instrument during the modern era, guitar-like instruments have been in existence in numerous cultures throughout the world for more than 5.000 years. The earliest instruments that the modern eye and ear would recognise as a 'normal' acoustic guitar date from about 500 years ago. Prior to this time, stringed instruments were in use throughout the world, but these early instruments are known primarily from visual depictions, not from the continued existence of music written for them. The majority of these depictions show simple stringed instruments, often lacking some of the parts that define a modern guitar. A number of these instruments have more in common with the lute than the guitar.
There is some uncertainty about the exact dateof the earliest six-string guitar. The oldest one still in existence, which was made by Gaetano Vinaccia, is dated 1779. However, the authenticity of six-string guitars alleged to have been made prior to 1790 is often suspect, as many fakes have been discovered dating to this era. The early nineteenth century is generally accepted as the time period during which six-string guitars began taking on their modern shape and dimensions. Thus for nearly two hundred years, luthiers, or guitar makers, have been producing versions of the modern acoustic guitar.
The first electric guitar was not developed until the early twentieth century. George Beauchamp received the first patent for an electric guitar in 1936, and Beauchamp went on to co-found Rickenbacker, originally known as the Electro String Instrument Company. Although Rickenbacker began producing electric guitars in the late 1930s, this brand received most of its fame in the 1960s, when John Lennon used a Rickenbacker guitar for the Beatles' debut performance on the Ed Sullivan show in 1964. George Harrison later bought a Rickenbacker guitar of his own, and the company later gave him one of their earliest 12-string electric guitars. Paul McCartney also used a Rickenbacker bass guitar for recording. The Beatles continued to use Rickenbacker guitars throughout their career, and made the instruments highly popular among other musicians of the era.
The Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation were two other early electric guitar pioneers, both developing models in the early 1950s. Fender began with the Telecaster in 1950 and 1951, and the Fender Stratocaster debuted in 1954. Gibson began selling the Gibson Les Paul, based partially on assistance from jazz musician and guitar innovator Les Paul, in 1952. The majority of present day solid-body electric guitars are still based largely on these three early electric guitar designs.
Throughout the history of the guitar, an enormous number of individuals have made their mark on the way in which the instrument was built, played and perceived. Though some of these individuals are particularly well known, like the Beatles or Les Paul, the majority of these people are virtually invisible to most modern guitar fans. By looking at the entire history of the guitar, rather than just recent developments, largely confined to electric guitars, it is possible to see more of the contributions of earlier generations.
Questions 66-70
Complete the sentences. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.
66. Despite differences in _________, 'guit-' and '-tar' appear in the word for 'guitar' in many languages.
67. Instruments that we would call acoustic guitars have been made and played for approximately 
 _________.
68. The ________ of acoustic guitars have not changed much in 200 years.
69. Les Paul, the well-known ________ guitarist, was involved in the development of the electric guitar.
70. Most ________ of the guitar know little about its rich history.
Your answers 
	66. 
	67. 
	68. 
	69. 
	 70.
Questions 71-75
Complete the summary. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer. Write your answer in the numbered box.
Instruments similar to the guitar have been played by musicians for over (71) ________ years. What we know about many of these instruments comes from (72) ________ rather than actual physical examples or music played on them. In some ways, these early stringed instruments were closer to (73) ________ than the guitar as we know it today. We do have examples of six-string guitars that are 200 years old. However, the (74) ________ of six-string guitars made by guitar makers who are also known as luthiers before the final decade of the eighteenth century is often open to question.
Although the electric guitar was invented in the 1930s, it took several decades for electric guitars to develop, with the company Rickenbacker playing a major part in this development. Most (75) ________ electric guitars in use today are similar in design to guitars produced by the Fender Musical Instruments Company and the Gibson Guitar Corporation in the 1950s.
Your answers 
	71. 
	72. 
	73. 
	74. 
	 75.
Part 3: Some parts of the following passages have been removed. Read the passage and then choose from the list A-J given below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all. Write your answer in the numbered box. (0) has been done as an example. 
PEDAL POWER 
If you are trying to get around central London when the traffic is bad and you can’t find a taxi, (0)____________: pedal-powered rickshaws are becoming increasingly popular in the capital. In fact, it is estimated that 350 of them now cruise the streets, though there is no official licensing procedure for these diminutive vehicles, so precise numbers are not available. And this is exactly the problem; it is claimed by residents’ associations and taxi drivers. Since rickshaws are not subject to the same regulations as other vehicles, (76) ____________. Consequently, the areas around popular tourist sights are sometimes packed with stationary pedicabs, as the rickshaws are also known. And (77) ____________ as no specific law is being broken. 
On the other hand, (78) ____________, which naturally get stuck in traffic jams like other motor vehicle. And unlike traditional London cabs, pedal-powered rickshaws cause no pollution whatsoever. Many tourists like them because they are an amusing, unusual way to get around. But are they potentially dangerous? Well, (79) ____________. Some taxi drivers claim the three-wheeled vehicles are inherently unstable and may tip over if the driver takes a corner too quickly. Rickshaw drivers insist that they drive almost exclusively in the narrow streets of the city centre, where (80) ____________. There has as yet been no serious accident involving a pedicab, but the government is considering some form of regulation just to be on the safe side.
	A. it could hardly be any different in this context
B. it is difficult for traffic police to do anything about them
C. it never seems to cause too much inconvenience
D. it very much depends who you talk to 
E. it annoys pedestrians as much as motorists 
F. it is clear that there is a need for an alternative to taxis 
G. it is impossible to gain enough speed for this to be a problem 
H. it is not clear whether they are subject to parking restrictions 
I. it is tempting to try an alternative
Your answers 
0. I 
	76. 
	77. 
	78. 
	79. 
	80. 
Part 4: Fill each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box provided below the passage. (0) has been done as an example. 
Although the (0)________ in the global temperature by 4 per cent predicted by many scientists may not sound like much, it is the difference between (81)________ and the last Ice Age, when huge glaciers (82)________ Europe and most of Britain. Nobody knows exactly what would happen in a warmer world, (83)________ we do know some things. Heat a kettle and the water inside it expands. The temperature of the world has climbed more than half a degree this century, and the oceans have risen by at (84)________ 10 cm.
	But just as it takes several minutes for a kettle to begin (85)________, so it may have taken the oceans thirty years to swell. This means that the global warming we are now (86)________ is a result only of the carbon dioxide we have dumped into the atmosphere up to (87)________ 1960s. Since then, the use of fossil (88)________ has increased rapidly. Scientists working for the United Nations and European governments have (89)________ warning that what the Dutch and the people of the East Anglia will need to do will be to build more extensive sea defences. Many of the world’s greater cities are at (90)________, because they are located at sea level. Miami, (91)________ entirely built on a sandbank, could be swept away. But the effects of (92)________sea levels will be much worse for the developing countries. With a metre rise in sea levels, 200 million people could become (93)________.
 	There are other fears too, (94)________ to a recent United Nations report. The plight of the hungry in the northern Africa could (95)________, as rainfall in the Sahara and beyond is reduced by 20 per cent.
Your answers 
0. rise
	81. 
	82. 
	83. 
	84. 
	85. 
	86.
	87.
	88.
	89.
	90.
	91.
	92.
	93.
	94.
	95.
III. WRITING (7/ 20 points)
Part 1: 
Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
96. Half the afternoon was spent on clay-modelling. 
 Clay-modelling ………………………….........................................................................
97. I heard her use those words many times.
 Many’s …………………………………………………………………………………………
98. It was more an argument than a discussion.
 It was not so ..................................................................................................................
99. They only reimbursed us because we took legal advice.
 We wouldn't .................................................................................................................
100. Your silly question distracted me.
 You drove .................................................................................................................
Part 2:
Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word.
101. From the educational point of view his childhood years had been well spent (TERMS) 
………………………………………………………………………….………...........................
102. He's very good at tennis and he's also a very good footballer. 	(addition) 
………………………………………………………………………….………...........................
103. Why does everything seem to be difficult to me? (only) 
………………………………………………………………………….………...........................
104. If you work without a break, you are more likely to make an error. (PRONE) 
………………………………………………………………………….………...........................
105. They were very keen to hear the president’s speech. (EARS) 
………………………………………………………………………….………...........................
Part 3: 
The chart below shows the results of a survey on various home activities among young people aged 11 to 16 in four countries. Write a report describing the information in the chart. 
 Home activities among young people
.............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. 
Part 4: 
A large number of people think that nowadays women should not work hard to earn their living; they should spend more time in caring for their families. 
To what extend do you agree or disagree with this opinion? 
Write about 300 words to support your position (and do not include your personal information). 
.................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................. 
THE END
KEYS – PRACTICE 3
I. LEXICO- GRAMMAR (7/20 points)
Part 1: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
		1. C
	2. D
	3. B
	4. B
	5. D
	6. C
	7. B
	8. A
	9. C
	10. A
Part 2: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
	11. replacement
	12. problematic
	13. narration
	14. outnumber
	15. overlay
	16. indestructible
	17. acclimatize
	18. impoverish
	19. short-staffed
	 20. preconceptions
Part 3: (2/20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
	21. divide => share
	22. believed => have believed
	23. University => the University
	24. just as => just like25. in which => among which
	26. study focus => study’s focus
	27. Though => Since
	28. up of => of
	29. which => and
	30. at times => at a time
Part 4: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
	31. have never got
	32. decided
	33. had been constantly going/ had constantly gone
	34. were already waiting
	35. turned
	36. would have preferred
	37. completely failed
	38. were being closely monitored/ were closely monitored
	39. changed
	40. am not thinking 
Part 5: (1/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
	41. off 
	42. through 
	43. across 
	44. in 
	45. down 
	46. up 
	47. for 
	48. out 
	49. by 
	50. with
II. READING: (6/ 20 points)
Part 1: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
	51. A 
	52. D 
	53. C 
	54. A
	55. B
	56. D
	57. B
	58. C
	59. C
	60. B
	61. A
	62. C
	63. C
	64. D
	65. B
	
	
	
	
	
	
	
	
	
	
	
 Part 2: (2/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
	66. spelling and pronunciation 
	67. five hundred years
	68. shape and dimensions
	69. jazz	
	70. Fans
	71. five thousand
	72. visual depictions
	73. the lute
	74. authenticity
	75. solid-body
Part 3: (1/ 20pts) (0.2 point for each correct answer)
	76. H
	77. B
	78. G
	79. D
	80. F
Part 4: (1.5/ 20pts) (0.1 point for each correct answer)
	81. now
	82. covered
	83. but
	84. least 
	85. warming
	86. experiencing 
	87. the 
	88. fuels
	89. been
	90. risk
	91. almost
	92. rising
	93. homeless
	94. according
	95. worsen
III. WRITING: (7/ 20 points)
Part 1: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)
Suggested answers 
96. Clay-modelling was timetabled for/took up/ half the afternoon.
97. Many’s the time (that) I heard her use those words.
98. It was not so much a discussion as argument. 
99. We wouldn't have been reimbursed if we hadn’t taken legal advice.
100. You drove me to distraction with your silly question.
Part 2: (0.75/20pts) (0.15 point for each correct answer)
Suggested answers 
101. In terms of education, his childhood years had been well spent.
102. He’s a very good footballer/ tennis player in addition to being a very good tennis player/ footballer.
 Or: He’s a very good footballer/ tennis player in addition (is) a good tennis player/ footballer.
103. If only everything weren’t difficult to me!
104. Working without a break makes you more prone to error.
105.They were all ears to the president’s speech.
Part 3: (2.5/20pts)
Part 4: (3/20pts)
Notes: 
The mark given to parts 3 and 4 is based on the following scheme: 
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate 
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students 
Markers, please, should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the papers. 
Thank you for your cooperation. 
PRACTICE TEST NO. 4
I. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Questions 1-10 Write the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in each of the following questions
1. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic	 C. capacity		 D. conversation
2. A. argument	 B. achievement C. Involvement 	 D. confinement
3. A. completion	B. behaviour	C. material	D. understand
4. A. opinion	B. comfortable	C. powerful	D. accurate
5. A. penalty	B. habitat	C. decision	D. Countryman
6. A. Atmosphere	B. emission	C. disposal	D. volcanic 
7. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
8. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
9. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
10. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
Part 2: Questions 11-20 Write the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions
1. A. rained	B. followed	C. arrived	D. jumped
2. A. leather	B. tea	C. lead	D. leave
3. A. autumn	B. summer	C. sunny	D. much
4. A. considered	B. stayed	C. picked	D. received
5. A. prohibit	B. co-exist	C. frozen	D. notify
6. A. rational	B. devastate	C. parade	D. danger
7. A. Valentine	B. determine	C. examine	D. heroine
8. A. muddy	B. punctual	C. studious	D. culture
9. A. element	B. election	C. event	D. eliminate
10. A. dreams	B. thinks	C. hours	D. gardens
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR	
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _________.
	A. though		B. although			C. as though		D. even though
2. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
	A. wasn’t concerned	B. wasn’t concerning	C. didn’t concern	D. didn’t concern to 
3. The entire city was _________ electricity last night – it was chaotic.
	A. no			B. almost no			C. hardly any		D. without
4. Henry was overweight, so he went on a strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
	A. missed		B. lost				C. failed		D. fell
5. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
	A. searched 		B. pursued 			C. wanted		D. hunted
6. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.
	A. live			B. raw				C. crude		D. rude
7. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
	A. Leaving uncovered				B. Having left uncovered	
C. Left uncovered					D. Been left uncovered
8. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
	A. cloud		B. tension			C. steam		D. sweat
9. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and possibly lead to a cure.
	A. earth		B. ground			C. soil			D. land
10. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
	A. games		B. jokes			C. tricks		D. fun
11. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
	A. lively		B. live				C. alive		D. living
12. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’d sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.
	A. could have told	B. told				C. have told		D. had told
13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
	A. effect		B. force			C. influence		D. action
14. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the world.
	A. was flourished					B. having to flourish	
C. to have flourished				D. have flourished
15. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
	A. reflect		B. bear			C. give		D. possess
16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
	A. what is needed	B. for our needs		C. the thing needed	D. that is needed 
17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
	A. was posted	B. posted			C. be posted		D. be post
18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
 Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
	A. I couldn’t agree more				B. I understand what you’re saying
	C. You’re wrong					D. I don’t see in that way
19. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
	A. reflecting		B. reflects			C. is reflecting	D. reflected
20. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
	A. a head		B. a mind			C. the heart		D. the nerve
Exercise 2. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
	SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
	To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) _______ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) _______ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) _______ excitingnightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has everything you need.
	November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) _______ and reliable, featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) _______ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming operations always keeps trails in top shape.
	The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams into thrilling (6. REAL) _______. There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding resorts on (7. PICTURE) _______ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) _______ winter paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) _______ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) _______ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
Exercise 3. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition/ particle for each blank.
1. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from freedom groups.
2. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
3. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
4. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the explosion.
5. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were ________the dole.
6. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
7. I can’t cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.
8. All the police’s efforts to find him were ________vain.
9. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
10. She’s gone and this time it’s ________good.
Exercise 4: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them
	Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive 
	Line 1
	support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds 
	Line 2
	requires completely different brain pathways which can operate at the same time 
	Line 3
	with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that 
	Line 4
	listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving. 
	Line 5
	Similarly, pop music should not interfere with children homework. The affect of 
	Line 6
	pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as 
	Line 7
	how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the 
	Line 8
	design of places which people have to take in large amounts of information very 
	Line 9
	quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits 
	Line 10
	on aircraft.
	Line 11
III. READING COMPREHENSION
Exercise 1. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS
	Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
	The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.
	While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
	However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A] Studies show that large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists, as human beings are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
	Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.
	In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the passage. 
1. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_____.
A. it is very bright 					B. it is close to the sun
	C. it can be seen from evening till morning	D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
	A. size		B. bulk			C. atmosphere		D. density
3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
	A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
	B. If a man could survive its surface pressure. 
	C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
	D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
4. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
	A. the small amounts of nitrogen			
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
	C. growing plants
	D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
	A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
	B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
	C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
	D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.
	Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit? 
7. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
	A. generation		B. elimination		C. evaporation	D. desecration
Questions8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer choices that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the summary is provided bellowed.
	Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.
	8. …………………………………………………
	9. …………………………………………………
	10. ………………………………………………
Answer Choices
A. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and caused a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
B. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can even move large obstructions.
C. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great surface pressure.
E. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide will produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and the (2) ________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only two steps are needed to reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in Asia for many stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that peaceful time and space for their body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7)________ this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa setting. Picturesque environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments bring the desired result. The Asian spa resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of their large treatment rooms. Visitors relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these take (10) ________ in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas where guests share rooms or changing areas.
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they had experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5-billion-worth of damage was (1) _________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2) _________ of the power of the wind. It’s one part of the weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain but it plays a vital role in people’s lives across the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite (3) __________ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and links between particular winds and psychological problems (4) __________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot dry wind that slides off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its (5) __________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California, many people (6) __________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert. Lyall Watson, in his book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when the Santa Ana blows, murder rates soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes, but for the (7) __________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take (8) __________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (9) __________ on it to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10) __________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
1. A. made		B. caused		C. destroyed		D. completed
2. A. reminders		B. recollections	C. mementos		D. memorial		
3. A. easily		B. rightly		C. surely		D. simply
4. A. last			B. originate		C. pass		D. date
5. A. line			B. road		C. path		D. bypass
6. A. despair		B. respect		C. dread		D. warn
7. A. most		B. maximum		C. majority		D. general
8. A. benefit		B. chance		C. occasion		D. advantage
9. A. need		B. trust 		C. hope		D. rely
10. A. traveling		B. hitching		C. borrowing		D. making
IV. WRITING 
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be changed in any way.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
	I wish _______________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
	The rain was ___________________________________________________.
3. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
	You ___________________________________before you borrowed my book. 
4. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE) 
	 This record used ___________________________ mine when I was younger.
5. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
	 It’s difficult for my sister _________________________________ every day.
6. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
	The North Sea is _________________________________ the Mediterranean.
7. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. (ON)
	Christ _________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
8. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. (TALKED)
 My father _________________________________ another foreign language.
9. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. (BRING)
Hard _________________________________________________________.
10. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. (GIVEN)
On___________________________________________________________.
Exercise 2. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.
-------------Hết-----------
KEYS – PRACTICE 4
I. PRONUNCIATION
Part 1: Questions 1-10 Write the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in each of the following questions
11. A. disappearance B. Sympathetic		 C. capacity		 D. conversation
12. A. argument	 B. achievement		 C. Involvement 	 D. confinement
13. A. completion	B. behaviour	C. material	D. understand
14. A. opinion	B. comfortable	C. powerful	D. accurate
15. A. penalty	B. habitat	C. decision	D. Countryman
16. A. Atmosphere	B. emission	C. disposal	D. volcanic 
17. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
18. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
19. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
20. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
Part 2: Questions 11-20 Write the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions
11. A. rained	B. followed	C. arrived	D. jumped
12. A. leather	B. tea	C. lead	D. leave
13. A. autumn	B. summer	C. sunny	D. much
14. A. considered	B. stayed	C. picked	D. received
15. A. prohibit	B. co-exist	C. frozen	D. notify
16. A. rational	B. devastate	C. parade	D. danger
17. A. Valentine	B. determine	C. examine	D. heroine
18. A. muddy	B. punctual	C. studious	D. culture
19. A. element	B. election	C. eventD. eliminate
20. A. dreams	B. thinks	C. hours	D. gardens
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 POINTS)
Exercise 1. (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
	1. A
	2. C
	3. D
	4. B
	5. C
	6. B
	7. B
	8. C
	9. B
	10. C
	11. B
	12. D
	13. A
	14. C
	15. B
	16. D
	17. C
	18. B
	19. A
	20. A
Exercise 2. (5pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
	1. breathtaking
	2. settlers
	3. lifetime
	4. consistent 
	5. legendary 
	6. reality	
	7. picturesque
	8. unparalleled 
	9. caring
	10. committed 
Exercise 3. (5pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
	1. in
	2. under
	3. to 
	4. out
	5. on
	6. out
	7. at
	8. in
	9. off
	10. for
Exercise 4. (10pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer + 0.5pt/ each correction)
	line
	mistake
	correction
	line
	mistake
	correction
	Line 1
	tell
	say
	Line 6
	affect
	effect
	Line 2
	pay
	paying
	Line 7
	outweigh
	outweighed
	Line 4
	with
	without
	Line 8
	for
	to
	Line 4
	founded
	found
	Line 9
	which
	where
	Line 6
	children
	children’s
	Line 10
	relevantly
	relevant
III. READING (30pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
	1. A
	2. C
	3. D
	4. B
	5. A
	6. B
	7. A
	8 – 10. A, C, F in any order 
Exercise 2. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
	1. edge
	2. sound
	3. by
	4. with
	5. but
	6. least
	7. satisfy/meet
	8. together/along
	9. well
	10. place
Exercise 3. (10pts; 1pt/ each correct answer)
	1. B
	2. A
	3. D
	4. D
	5. C
	6. C
	7. A
	8. D
	9. D
	10. B
IV. WRITING (20pts)
Exercise 1. (5pts; 0.5pt/ each correct answer)
1. I wish I had ability to speak French.
2. The rain was coming down in torrents. 
3. You should have asked me/ for permission before you borrowed my book.
4. This record used to be a/one favourite of mine when I was younger.
5. It’s difficult for my sister to put up with commuting every day.
6. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean. 
7. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
8. My father talked me into learning another language.
9. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking).
10. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family.
Exercise 2. (15 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Marking scheme
The mark given is based on the following scheme: 
· Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
· Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
· Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
· Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
-------------Hết-----------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 5
SECTION A: PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress is pronounced differently from the other three in the following questions
21. A. disappearance 	B. Sympathetic	C. capacity	D. conversation
22. A. argument	B. achievement	C. Involvement 	D. confinement
23. A. completion	B. behaviour	C. material	D. understand
24. A. opinion	B. comfortable	C. powerful	D. accurate
25. A. penalty	B. habitat	C. decision	D. Countryman
26. A. Atmosphere	B. emission	C. disposal	D. volcanic 
27. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
28. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
29. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
30. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
SECTION B: READING
Part 1: Read the following passage and choose the correct answer to each of the questions.
	Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause diseases in animals. In addition, man can catch the diseases from animals. In fact, a greater number of wild birds seem to carry the viruses without showing any evidence of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza viruses may have evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the viruses without contracting the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from place to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
	It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal at the same time. The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing different H and N spikes. This raises the possibility that a human influenza viruses can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an entirely new spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being. Another possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new strain which is transmitted to man.
11. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses _______
	A. cause ill health in wild animals			
 B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
	C. are rarely present in wild birds			
 D. change when transmitted from animals to man
12. What is known about the influenza viruses?
 	A. It was first found in a group of very old birds.	
 B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
	C. It existed over 100 million years ago.		
D. It can survive in many different places.
13. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______
	A. H and N spikes are produced			
B. animal and bird viruses are combined
	C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine		
	D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
14. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______
	A. a type of wild pig 					B. diseased lower animals	 
C. a group of migrating birds				D. a variety of means
15. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of influenza EXCEPT_______
	A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining 	
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
	C. two animal viruses recombining 	
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
Your answers:
	11.
	12.
	13.
	14.
	15.
Part 2: Read the text and then select the correct answer, A, B, C or D. Write your answer in the right box below.
The Netherlands
	Welcome to the Netherlands, a tiny country that only extends, at its broadest, 312 km north to south, and 264 km east to west - (16) ______ the land area increases slightly each year as a (17)  ______ of continuous land reclamation and drainage. With a lot of heart and much to offer, 'Holland,' (18)  ______ it is commonly known to most of us abroad - a name stemming (19)  ______ its once most prominent provinces - has more going on per kilometre (20)  ______ most countries, and more English-speaking natives. You'll be impressed by its (21)  ______ cities and charmed by its countryside and villages, full of contrasts. From the exciting variety (22)  ______ offer, you could choose a romantic canal boat tour in Amsterdam, a Royal Tour by coach in The Hague, or a hydrofoil tour around the biggest harbour in the world - Rotterdam. In season you could visit the dazzling bulb fields, enjoy a full day on a boat, or take a bike tour through the pancake-flat countryside spiced with windmills. The possibilities are (23)  ______ and the nationwide tourist office, which is on hand to give you information and (24)  ______ reservations. You'll have (25)  ______ language problems here, as the Dutch are true linguists and English is spoken here almost universally.
	16.
	A. so
	B. despite
	C. in spite of
	D. although
	17.
	A. whole
	B. consequently
	C. rule
	D. result
	18.
	A. as
	B. like
	C. so
	D. that
	19.
	A. in
	B. from
	C. on
	D. of
	20.
	A. then
	B. than
	C. like
	D. to
	21.
	A. historic
	B. historical
	C. historically
	D. historian
	22.
	A. at
	B. in
	C. on
	D. for
	23.
	A. countdown
	B. counted
	C. countless
	D. countable
	24.
	A. sit
	B. catch
	C. do
	D. make
	25.
	A. few
	B. a few
	C. little
	D. a little
Your answers:
	16.
	17.
	18.
	19.
	20.
	21.
	22.
	23.
	24.
	25.
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following sentences. Write A, B, C or D in your answers26. Please and see us some time - you’re always welcome.
 A. come to B. come about C. come round D. come away
27. This is the most difficult job I’ve had to do.
A. by far	B. by chance	 C. by all means	 	D. by myself
28. You’d better stop spending money, you’ll end up in debts.
A. or so	B. if not	C. otherwise		D. so that
29. One person……..seven in the world speaks perfect English. 
A. from 	 B. within 	 C. for among 	 	D. out of.
30. The agency is ________ and not run for profit.
 A. charitable	 B. donated	 C. voluntary	 	D. free
31. He retired early ________ his ill health.
 A. on behalf of B. in front of C. on account of D. in spite of
32. Job specialisation takes place…………of production is seperated into occupations.
 A. whenever the work is B. when the work 
 C. is when the work D. whenever working
33. The judge decided to……….the thief to three months’imprisonment.
 A. sentence.	 B. prison.	 C. put.		 D. imprison.
34. I met Jim at college. It was the start of a………….friendship.
 A. longlife	 B. prolong	 C. lengthened	 D. lifelong
35. Bats avoid………..objects by emitting high-frequency sounds and listening for echoes.
 A. to run into	 B. running onto		C. running into	D. to run onto
Your answers :	
	26.
	27.
	28.
	29.
	30.
	31.
	32.
	33.
	34.
	35.
Part 2: There are 8 mistakes in the following passage. Underline the mistakes and write the correct answers in the space provided. 
Let us suppose that you are in the position of a parent. Would you allow your children read any book they wanted to without first checking its content? Would you take them to see any film without first finding whether it is suitable for them? If your answer of these questions is yes, then you are either extremely permissive, or just plain irresponsible. If your answer is not, then you are exercising your right as a parent to protect your children from what you consider to be desirable influences. In other words, by acting as a censor yourself, you are admitting that there is a strong case for censorship.
Children need protection and it is the parents' responsible to provide it. But what about adults? Aren't they old enough to decide that is good for them? The answer is that many adults are, but don't make the mistake of thinking that all adults are as yourself. Censorship is for the good of society as a whole. Highly civilized people might find it possible to live together without laws of any kind: they would just rely on good sense to solve their problems. But imagine what chaos there would be if we live in a society without laws! Like the law, censorship contributes to the common good.
	Your answers:
	MISTAKES
	CORRECTION
	MISTAKES
	CORRECTION
	36. 
	
	40. 
	
	37. 
	
	41. 
	
	38. 
	
	42. 
	
	39. 
	
	43.
	
Part 3: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been discovered .
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (44)……….to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to suffer from scurvy (45)………is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables contain vitamin C ,which is necessary for good (46)…………..
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to different(47)……….. For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental disorders. A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The knowledge that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to (48)………people suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the necessary (49)………….Today, vitamins are available (50)……….the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Your answers:
	44. 
	45.
	46.
	47.
	48.
	49.
	50.
Part 4: Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to first one. Use and don’t change the word given. Write 2-5 words in total. 
51. I tried to talk to Jack about the problem, but he was too busy. 	WORD
I tried to …………………………… about the problem ,but he was too busy 
52. “ I don’t mind which film we see”, I said 	MATTER
I said that …………………………… me which film we saw.
53. I was too scared to tell him what I really thought. 	COURAGE
I ……………………………………… to tell him what I really thought.
54. People say that the pyramids are worth visiting. 	SUPPOSED
The pyramids ……………………………………………. worth visiting.
55. I was so shocked that I couldn’t react. 	WASN’T
I …………………………………………………………… react.
SECTION C: WRITING
Part 1: Part 1: You have recently seen a film you enjoyed very much. Write a letter to an English-speaking penfriend, recommending the film and explaining why you thought it was so good (80-90 words). Use your name and address as Tom Smith – 123, Red Street, Fantasy City.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Part 2: Write a composition about 150-200 words on the following topic: 
Some students prefer to study alone. Others prefer to study with a group of students. Which do you prefer? Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
THE END
Keys practice 5
SECTION A: PRONUNCIATION (20 points)
Choose the word whose stress is pronounced differently from the other three in the following questions
1. A. disappearance 	B. Sympathetic	C. capacity	D. conversation
2. A. argument	B. achievement	C. Involvement 	D. confinement
3. A. completion	B. behaviour	C. material	D. understand
4. A. opinion	B. comfortable	C. powerful	D. accurate
5. A. penalty	B. habitat	C. decision	D. Countryman
6. A. Atmosphere	B. emission	C. disposal	D. volcanic 
7. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
8. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
9. A. economic	B. considerate	C. territorial	D. continental
10. A. commit	B. recipe	C. index	D. preview
SECTION B: READING (20 points)
Part 1: (2pts × 5 Qs) 
	11.B
	12.D
	13.C
	14.D
	15.D
Part 2: (1pts × 10 Qs) 
	16.D
	17.D
	18.A
	19.B
	20.B
	21.A
	22.C
	23.C
	24.D
	25.A
SECTION C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)
Part 1(1pts × 10 Qs) 
	26.C
	27.A
	28.C
	29.D
	30.C
	31.C
	32.B
	33.A
	34.D
	35.C
Part 2: (1pts ×8 Qs)
	MISTAKES
	CORRECTION
	MISTAKES
	CORRECTION
	36. read
	to read
	40. responsible
	responsibility
	37. finding
	findingout
	41. that is good
	what is good
	38. not
	no
	42. as yourself
	like yourself
	39. desirable
	undesirable
	43.live
	lived
Part 3: (1pts × 7 Qs).
	44. lead
	45.which/that
	46.health
	47.diseases
	48.cure
	49.vitamins
	50.in
Part 4: (1pts × 5 Qs)
51. I tried to have a word with Jack about the problem, but he was too busy.
52. I said that it didn’t matter to me which film we saw.
53. I didn’t have the courage to tell him what I really thought.
54. The pyramids are supposed to be worth visiting.
55. I wasn’t calm enough to react.
SECTION D: WRITING (20 points)
Part 1: (7pts) 
Length (1ps): 80-90 words
Ideas (2ps): 
Organization and Style (2ps):	informal
Vocabulary and grammar (2ps) 
Part 2: (13pts)		
1. Length: (2ps) : 150 to 200 words.
 2. Organization & style: (3ps) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
3. Ideas (4ps): a provision of main ideas and appropriate details and examples.
 4. Grammar and Vocabulary (4ps) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 6
SECTION A: PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your answer in the space provided.
1. A. associate			B. sociable			C. ancient		D. ancestor 
2. A. walked			B. threatened			C. passed		D. forced
3. A. too	 		B. food		 		C. soon	 	D. good
4. A. legal 	 		B. legend		 	C. generous		D. manager
5. A. adventure	 	B. future		 	C. mature		D. figure
	1.
	3.
	5.
	2.
	4.
	
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write your answer in the space provided.
6. A. comedy			B. collection			C. comical		D. calculate
7. A. ambitious		B. memorial			C. memory		D. mechanic
8. A. remove			B. cancel			C. copy		D. answer 
9. A. Japanese	 		B. engineer 		C. practical 	D. questionnaire
10. A. document		B. develop			C. opponent		D. astonish
	6.
	8.
	10.
	7.
	9.
	
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the space provided.
11. He has declared......building a new bridge.
A. against	B. to	C. in	D. about
12. A washing machine of this type will certainly......normal domestic use.
A. stand up for	B. get on to	C. take down with	D. come up with
13. She set......some money each month for her holiday.
A. aside	B. back	C. about	D. up
14. .......of half-starving wolves were roaming the snow-covered countryside.
A. Packs	B. Herds	C. Flocks	D. Swarms
15. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally.......
A. gave off	B. gave in	C. gave over	D. gave out
16. Mary always takes great care.......her children.
A. with	B. for	C. of	D. to
17. ........he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. In spite of	B. Despite	C. Although	D. Because
18. Please don't enter.......knocking.
A. without	B. with	C. except for	D. while
19. While studying he was financially dependent.......his parents.
A. of	B. from	C. on	D. to
20. I took your pen........mistake.
A. of	B. with	C. by	D. from
21. ........of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. In place	B. On account	C. Instead	D. On behalf
22. He kept his job.......the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. despite	B. even	C. although	D. unless
23. Mary doesn’t mind living.......her own.
A. with	B. by	C. at	D. on
24. Please cut my hair.......the style in this magazine.
A. the same long as	B. the same length as	C. the same long like	D. the same length like
25. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ......ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. whether or not	B. even though	C. whereas	D. because
	11. 
	14. 
	17. 
	20. 
	23. 
	12. 
	15. 
	18. 
	21. 
	24. 
	13. 
	16. 
	19. 
	22. 
	25. 
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
26. Because the torrential rains that had devastated the area, the governor sent the National Guard to assist in the clean-up operation.
27. One of the most important things in life is a good health.
28. The city has spent a big amount of money on crime prevention.
29. Comparing with other countries, Libya spends a high percentage of income on education.
30. People are now enjoying a higher level of living.
31. In the United Kingdom women see their doctor on the average five times a year.
32. Although Mark has been cooking for many years, he still doesn’t know to prepare French foods in the traditional manner.
33. When we arrived at the store to purchase the dishwasher advertise in the newspaper, we learned that all the dishwashers had been sold.
34. After rising the flag to commemorate the holiday, the mayor gave a long speech.
35. This time tomorrow I will lie on the beach, enjoying the sunshine.
	
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	26.
	
	
	31.
	
	
	27.
	
	
	32.
	
	
	28.
	
	
	33.
	
	
	29.
	
	
	34.
	
	
	30.
	
	
	35.
	
	
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the space provided.
36. I was annoyed at his (REFUSE)______ to co-operate. 
37. The book doesn’t say much about prices, but it is very (INFORM)______ about everything else. 
38. The noise (LESS)______ as the plane got farther away.
39. He lost in the election because he was a weak and (DECIDE)______ leader.
40. I couldn’t help it. The accident was (AVOID)______.
41. She was (EXTREME)______ knowledgeable about the history of China.		
42. He was very (SET)_______ when his cat was run over. 
43. Jackson had another violent (AGREE)_______ with the referee. 
44. Many people were buried (LIVE)______ after the earthquake. 
45. She studied (ECONOMY)______ at university. 
	36. ………………………
	39. ………………………
	42. ………………………
	45. ………………………
	37. ………………………
	40. ………………………
	43. ………………………
	
	38. ………………………
	41. ………………………
	44. ………………………
	
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space provided.
 Australia is a big country, but nearly all Australians live near the sea. On hot summer days, you can see thousands of people at the beach. Many beaches have waves (46)______ are very high.
 These large waves are known as surf and the people who ride them are called surfers. Surfing is a skill, and it needs learning. Don’t (47)______ to be able to surf properly the (48)______ time you try. However, by practising a few times you will learn (49)______ to do it.
 Surfing is not a new sport. Perhaps its origins need explaining. It started hundreds (50)______ years ago in Hawaii. Men swam (51)______ to sea to catch fish and found they could come back to land very quickly by riding the waves. These first surfers did not (52)______ a board. They were “body surfers”. Many people (53)______ do this type of surfing today.
 After a while people started to use boards and rode the waves by lying, kneeling or standing (54)______ them. These first surfboards were made of wood and the water made them rot after a while. Today, surfboards are made of plastic or fibreglass (55)______.
	46. ………………………
	49. ………………………
	52. ………………………
	55. ………………………
	47. ………………………
	50. ………………………
	53. ………………………
	
	48. ………………………
	51. ………………………
	54. ………………………
	
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the space provided.
What do you do well? What do you enjoy doing? Your answers to these two questions will help you identify your (56)______. An employer will consider you seriously for a (57)______ when you can show them that you know who you are, what you can offer and which you have studied. Sometimes it is difficult to know what your weaknesses are. Clearly not everyone is equallygood (58)______ everything. You may need to improve yourself and so (59)______ courses in that field could turn a weakness into strength.
You will need to (60)______ some time on your self-assessment. Your honesty and the desire for self-improvement will lead to (61)______ in getting the right job. Explore the following seven areas to start to get to know yourself: your aptitude, your skills, your personality, the level of responsibility you feel comfortable with, your interests and your needs.
Ask (62)______ if you have any special talents and if you need to consider your physical health when choosing a job. Be as honest and realistic as you can, and ask for other people's (63)______ if necessary. Make a list of these things. It is usually a good idea to talk about your aptitudes with teachers, family and friends.
If you are considering a career that (64)______ a special talent, such as art, acrobatics, mathematics or music, discuss your aptitudes with (65)______ expert in that area and discover how they fit the needs of the occupation.
56. A. strong 			B. strength 			C. strengthen 		D. strengthened
57. A. position 		B. location 			C. spot 		D. room
58. A. upon 			B. in 				C. at 			D. for
59. A. meeting 		B. taking 			C. making 		D. interviewing
60. A. use 			B. make 			C. lose 			D. spend
61. A. success 		B. successful 			C. successfully 	D. succeed
62. A. you 			B. your 			C. yours 		D. yourself
63. A. interests 		B. fields 			C. opinions 		D. attendances
64. A. requires 		B. asks 			C. tells 		D. urges
65. A. a 			B. an 				C. the 			D. this
	56.
	59.
	62.
	65.
	57.
	60.
	63.
	
	58.
	61.
	64.
	
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. Write your answer in the space provided.
 May 7th 1840 was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth century: Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky, the son of a mining inspector. Tchaikovsky studied music as a child and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed patronage of Madame von Meck, a woman he never met, who gave him a yearly living stipend. Madame von Meck later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck’s patronage, however, that Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of “Swan Lake” and “The Sleeping Beauty”. Tchaikovsky’s music, well-known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died ostensibly of cholera on November 6th 1893, though there are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
66. The best title for this passage could be ______.
A. “The Life and Music of Tchaikovsky” 
B. “Development of Tchaikovsky’s Music for Ballets”
C. “Tchaikovsky’s Relationship with Madame von Meck”
D. “The Cause of Tchaikovsky’s Death”
67. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck EXCEPT ______.
A. she had economic troubles				
B. she was generous 
C. she was never introduced to Tchaikovsky		
D. she enjoyed Tchaikovsky’s music
68. According to the passage, Tchaikovsky’s music is most well-known for ______.
A. its repetitive and monotonous tones			
B. the ballet-like quality of music
C. the richness and melodic drama of the music	
D. its lively, capricious melodies
69. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky’s influence on ballet music.
B. Tchaikovsky’s unhappiness leading to suicide.
C. The patronage of Madame von Meck.
D. Tchaikovsky’s productivity in composing. 
70. It can be inferred from the passage that ______.
A. it was not the music behind the dance that made Tchaikovsky famous
B. there is suspicion on the cause of Tchaikovsky’s death
C. Madame von Meck was one of the most famous Russian composers
D. Madame von Meck was one of Tchaikovsky’s girlfriends
	66.
	68.
	70.
	67.
	69.
	
SECTION D: WRITING
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
71. It is extremely difficult for us to make ends meet these days.
 We find ..............................................................................................................................................................
72. Alice and Charles did not decide to move to a bigger house until after the birth of their second child.
 Only when ...........................................................................................................................................................
73. While mending the road, they accidentally blocked our water pipes.
 They accidentally cut off .....................................................................................................................................
74. He brought the umbrella along but it didn't rain.
 He needn't .........................................................................................................................................................
75. While I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
 Despite ...............................................................................................................................................................
II. Use the word given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).
76. When I was driving, I realized that the car wasn’t working properly. (WRONG)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
77. Sandra said that she was willing to work late. (MIND)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
78. They pretended to be enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really. (AS)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
79. I can't lift this table on my own.					 (UNLESS)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
80. The coins are believed to have been buried for safe-keeping.		 (IT)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
III. Write a composition about the following topic:
What do you think an ideal teacher should be?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write about 200 words.
............................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................................Keys – practice 6
SECTION A: PHONETICS (10 points)
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the other words. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
	1
	2
	3
	4
	5
	D
	B
	D
	A
	C
II. Pick out the word that differs from the other words in the position of the main stress. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
	6
	7
	8
	9
	10
	B
	C
	A
	C
	A
SECTION B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (35 points)
I. Choose the word or phrase which best completes each sentence. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 15 = 15 points
1. He has declared......building a new bridge.
A. against	B. to	C. in	D. about
2. A washing machine of this type will certainly......normal domestic use.
A. stand up for	B. get on to	C. take down with	D. come up with
3. She set......some money each month for her holiday.
A. aside	B. back	C. about	D. up
4. .......of half-starving wolves were roaming the snow-covered countryside.
A. Packs	B. Herds	C. Flocks	D. Swarms
5. We had to get a bank loan when the money finally.......
A. gave off	B. gave in	C. gave over	D. gave out
6. Mary always takes great care.......her children.
A. with	B. for	C. of	D. to
7. ........he did not attend the English class, he knew the lesson quite well.
A. In spite of	B. Despite	C. Although	D. Because
8. Please don't enter.......knocking.
A. without	B. with	C. except for	D. while
9. While studying he was financially dependent.......his parents.
A. of	B. from	C. on	D. to
10. I took your pen........mistake.
A. of	B. with	C. by	D. from
11. ........of all the staff, I would like to wish you a happy retirement.
A. In place	B. On account	C. Instead	D. On behalf
12. He kept his job.......the manager had threatened to sack him.
A. despite	B. even	C. although	D. unless
13. Mary doesn’t mind living.......her own.
A. with	B. by	C. at	D. on
14. Please cut my hair.......the style in this magazine.
A. the same long as	B. the same length as	C. the same long like	D. the same length like
15. Ancient Egyptians mummified the dead bodies through the use of chemicals, ......ancient Peruvians did through natural processes.
A. whether or not	B. even though	C. whereas	D. because
II. There is one mistake in each of the following sentences. Find and correct it.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
	
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	26.
	Because
	Because of
	31.
	on the average 
	on average 
	27.
	a good health
	good health
	32.
	know to 
	know how to
	28.
	a big amount
	a large/ huge/ enormous amount
	33.
	advertise 
	Advertised, or:
that/ which had been advertised
	29.
	Comparing
	Compared
	34.
	rising 
	raising
	30.
	level
	standard
	35.
	will lie 
	will be lying
III. Give the correct form of the words in the brackets in each of the following sentences. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
	36. refusal
	39. indecisive
	42. upset
	45. economics
	37. informative
	40. unavoidable
	43. disagreement
	
	38. lessened
	41. extremely
	44. alive
	
SECTION C: READING COMPREHENSION (30 points)
I. Fill in each numbered blank with one suitable word. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
	46. that/ which 
	49. how
	52. use
	55. instead
	47. expect
	50. of
	53. still 
	
	48. first
	51. out
	54. on
	
II. Read the following passage and decide which answer (A, B, C, or D) best fits each gap. Write your answer in the space provided.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 10 = 10 points
	56. B
	59. B
	62. D
	65. B
	57. A
	60. D
	63. C
	
	58. C
	61. A
	64. A
	
III. Read the following text and choose the best answer for the questions below. Write your answer in the space provided.
2 points/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 10 points
	66. A
	68. C
	70. B
	67. D
	69. B
	
SECTION D: WRITING (25 points)
I. Finish the second sentence in such a way that it means the same as the sentence printed before it.
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
Suggested answers:
71. We find it difficult to make ends meet these days.
72. Only when Alice and Charles had their second child, did they decide to move to a bigger house.
73. They accidentally cut off our water supplying while mending the road.
74. He needn't have brought the umbrella along (because it didn't rain anyway).
75. Despite my strong disapproval of your behaviour/ the fact that I strongly disapprove of your behaviour, I will help you this time.
II. Use the word(s) given in brackets and make any necessary additions to write a new sentence in such a way that it is as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence. Do NOT change the form of the given word(s).
1 point/ 1 correct answer × 5 = 5 points
Suggested answers:
76. While I was driving, I realized that there was something wrong with the car.
77. Sandra said that she didn’t mind working late.
78. They acted as if they were enjoying themselves, but they weren’t really.
79. I can't lift this table unless you help me/ someone helps me.
80. It is believed that the coins were buried for safe-keeping.
III. Write a composition about the following topic: (15 points)
What do you think an ideal teacher should be?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write about 200 words.
Notes:
The mark given to this part is based on the following scheme: 
1. Content: (40% of total mark) a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate.
2. Organization & Presentation: (30% of total mark) ideas are organized and presented with coherence, style, and clarity appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
3. Language: (30% of total mark) a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students.
Markers, please, should discuss the suggested answers and the marking scale thoroughly before marking the papers. 
Thank you for your cooperation and considerations.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 7
SECTIONI–PHONETICS
I.Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line.( 5p)
1.A.several			B. suppose		C. decisive			D. sister
2.A. muddle			B. struggle		C. bush			D. interrupt
3.A. ready			B. measure		C. steak			D. stealth
4.A. wind			B. behind		C. mind			D. find
5.A.chalice			B. challenge		C. choice			D. chemist
II. Pick out the word that has the stress syllable differently from that of the other words.(5p)
1.A. application		B. certificate		C. biology			D. security
2. A. university		B. punctuality		C. agricultural			D.mathematician
3. A. identify			B. secondary		C. luxuriously			D. majority
4. A. academic		B. engineering	C. availabe			D.sympathetic
5.A. obligatory		B. geographical	C. international		D. undergraduate
SECTION II- VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR
I. Choose the best option ( A, B, C or D) to complete sentence below and write your answers in the answer sheet.( 10p)
1. She refused to eat meat under any ………………… .
A. circumstances		B. occasion		C. opportunity		D. reason
2. It was difficult to guess what he ……………. to the news would be.
A. feelings			B. reaction		C. capital			D. opinion
3. Though badly damaged by fire, the palace was eventually …… to its original splendour.
A. repaired			B. renewed		C. restored			D. renovated
4. He didn’t know anyone at the wedding ………….. than the bride and the groom.
A. except			B. other		C. apart			D. rather
5. When you are an old age pensioner, you have to learn to ………… a very small income.
A. live on			B. live up to		C. live out			D. live down
6. I felt so much better, my doctor ………….. me to take a holiday by the sea.
A. suggested			B. considered		C. accepted			D. advised
7. He said that the plane had already left and that I …………….. arrived an hour earlier.
A. must have			B. had to		C. should have		D. was supposed to
8. Alice didn’t expect ……………. to Bill’s party.
A. to ask			B. being asked	C. to be asked			D. asking
9.The restaurantson the island are expensive, so it’s worth ……………… a packed lunch.
A. take				B. to take		C. taking			D. taken
10. When the alarm went off, Mick just turned ………..…. and went back to sleep.
A. down			B. over			C. up				D. out
II.Put the verb in brackets into the correct tense.( 10p)
1.When he ( not arrive) ……….. by 6.00, I ( know) ………. He ( miss) ………… the bus.
2. Something ( tell) ………….. me that you ( not listen) …………… to a single word I (say) ……….. in the past tense minutes.
3. Same ( not receive) ……………..…… the parcel the last time I ( speak) …………….. to him.
4. When you ( feel) ……….… hungry, room service ( bring) ………….. you whatever you want.
III. Give the correct forms of the words in brackets to complete the blank space. ( 10p)
1.The judges describe Jones as a ….. criminal who was a danger to members of the public.	HARD
2. Rescue team held out little hope of finding other …………. 					SURVIVE
3. He works for UNESCO in a purely ………….. role. 						ADVICE
4. …………… of the new system will take several days.						INSTALL
5. This type of behaviour is no longer …………. acceptable.					SOCIETY
6. Watching television can be very …………….. 							EDUCATION
7. Teachers must keep a record of students’ ……………….. 						ATTEND
8. Our school set up a project to ……………. the library system.					COMPUTER
9.The breakdown of the negotiations was not ……………….. 					EXPECT
10. Those countries are ……. on other countries for most of their food.				DEPEND
IV. Fill in each gap with a suitable preposition. (10 points)
1.……………… behalf of the department I would like to thank you all.
2. Many people expressed a strong preference …………. the original plan.
3. They were refused entrance ………… the exhibition .
4. He graduated …………….. York with a degree in Psychology.
5. We had an argument ………….. the waiter about the bill.
6. She complimented him ………….. his exellent German.
7. She sacrificed everything ……………. her children.
8. Sit down and make yourself ……………. home.
9. He works away …………… home during the week.
10. The searchers spread ………….. to over the area faster.
 SECTION III – READING
I.Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions below.(10p)
	Traditionally the United States has been described as a melting pot, a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society. Since the 1960s, many Americans have rejected the melting pot metaphor in favour of the image of the mosaic, a picture created by assembling many small stones or tiles. In a mosaic, each peace retains its own distinctive identity, while contributing to a larger design. Advocates of the mosaic metaphor assert that it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States. Today, may Americans value their immigrant heritage as an important part of their identity. More recent immigrant groups from Asia, such as Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans, have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of European immigrants, such as French Americans, German Americans, Irish Americans and Italian Americans.
1.Why has the United States often been described as a melting pot?
2. Why have people been in favour of the image of the “ mosaic”?
3. What does the word “mosaic” mean?
4. What have immigrant groups from Asia done to maintain their identity?
5. Name some recent immigrant groups from Asia in the United States?
II.Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each space. (10 p)
					CAR CATCHES FIRE
Three people jumped ……………( 1) a car on a busy Oxford road after a fire started under the bonnet this morning. They were just able to rescue their possessions before the car burst into …………..(2). Mr. Peter Collins, 25, of Wey Road, Berinsfield …………….(3) his Avenger astate car home ………….(4) work with two friends when he noticed smoke coming into the car. He stopped, …………(5) was unable to open the bonnet. He poured a bottle of water over the radiator where the smoke was coming from, but could not put out the flames. He then ………… (6) to get fire extinguishers from a nearby…………(7) , but ………….(8) also failed to have any effect. ……….(9) he telephoned for a ……..(10) , but by the time it arrived, the car was totally burned out.
1. A. into			B. on			C. out of		D. over
2. A. flames			B. petrol		C. smoke		D. sparks
3. A.drove			B. has driven		C. was driving		D. was driven
4. A. to				B. from		C. at			D. in
5.A. but			B. because		C. although		D. so
6. A. wandered		B. jumped		C. walked		D. ran
7.A. hospital			B. garage		C.library		D. swimming pool
8. A. this			B. those		C. that			D. these
9. A. At length			B.Finally		C. At the end		D. Terminally
10. A. police car		B. ambulance		C. taxi			D. fire engine
III.Read the passage below carefully. Then choose the correct answer: A, B, C or D that best answers the question about the passage. (5p)
	When we were in England last year, I went fishing with my friend, Peter. Early in the morning we were sitting quietly by the side of the lake when we had an unpleasant surprise. We saw a duck come along with three ducklings padding cheerfully behind her. As we watched them, there was a sudden swirl in the water. We caught a glimpse of the vicious jaws of a pike- a fish which is rather like a freshwater shark- and one of the ducklings was dragged below the surface.
	This incident made Peter furious. He vowed to catch the pike. On three successive mornings we returned to the vicinity and used several different kinds of bait. On the third day Peter was lucky. Using an artificial frog as bait, he managed to hook the monster. There was a desperate fight but Peter was determined to capture the pike and succeeded. When he had got it ashore and killed it, he wieghed the fish and found that it scaled nearly thirty pounds- a record for that district.
1.Why do you think Peter was sitting quietly by the lake ?
A. He was watching the ducks.			
C. He was waiting for the pike to appear.
B. He wasn’t very talkative.			
D. He was fishing
2. To what does surprise in line 3 probably refer?
A. to the duck.		B. to the ducklings.	C. to the action of the pike.		D. to the time of the day.
3. What were Peter’s feelings about the incident two days later?
A. He caught and killed the pike.			
C. He vowed that he would catch the remaining ducklings
B. He remained determined to catch the pike.	
D. He caught a frog and used it as bait for the pike.
4. How much was the pike worth?
A. about thirty pounds.					
B. about two hundred and forty dollars.
C. the passage contains no information on this point.	
D. the passage says that the fish scaled nearly thirty pound.
5. Which of the following titles best sums up the whole passage?
A. Mysterious disappearance of ducklings.
C. Record pike caught by an angry fisherman.
B. Revenge on a duck.				
D. Huge pike caught by fisherman after desperate struggle at sea.
Section IV – writing 
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (5 points).
1. But for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, he would have been stranded there for hours.
- If …………………………………………………………………………………………
2. Let’s invite the Browns to the party on Sunday.
- He suggested ……………………………………………………………………………..
3. The only thing that prevented the passing of the bill was the death of the Prime Minister.
- Had it not ..………………………….……………………………………………………….
4. I’ve forgotten that commentator’s name but he’s very well-known.
- That commentator, …………………………………………………………………………..
5. I only recognised him when he came into the light.
- Not until ……………………………….……………………………………………………..
II. Using the word given and other words, complete the sencond sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence. (5points)
1.There’s no point in asking George to help. (WORTH)
- It ………………………………………………………….Gerge to help.
2. The last time I saw him was when I lived in London. ( SINCE)
- I …………………………………….. I lived in London.
3. I don’t normally go into town by car. ( USED)
- I ……………………………………………intotown by car.
4. Nobody plays this piece as beautifully as he does. (MORE)
- He plays this piece………………………………………………….else.
5. I couldn’t go to work because of the transport strike. ( PREVENTED)
- I ……………………………………………to work by the transport strike.
III. Using the cues below to complete each sentence of the following passage. (5p)
1.Teacher/ Day/ Vietnam/ fall/ twenty/ November/ each year.
........................................................................................................................................................................
2. General/ it / be/ mean/ schoolchildren/ show/ appreciation/ teacher/ who/ guide/ in/ study.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
3. In / a/ time/ forget/ bad/ experience/ student/ have/ teacher/ scold/ punish.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
4. Students/ give/ teacher/ flower/ small/ gift.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Small/ party/ hold/ and/ there/ be/ atmosphere/ fun/ amusement/ school.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
IV. Writing an essay (10p)
Living in a tranditional family of three or four generations has both advantages and disadvantages. What do you think of that matter? Write an essay of about 180- 200 words to support your points.
				-----------THE END-------------
Keys – practice 7
SECTION I: Phonetics (10 POINTS)
I. A. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
	1. B
	2. C
	3. C
	4. A
	5. D
B. (1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
	1.A
	2.D
	3.B
	4.C
	5.A
SECTION II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 POINTS)
I . (1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
	1.A
	2. B
	3. C
	4. B
	5. A
	6. D
	7. C
	8. C
	9. C
	10. B
II .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. didn’t arrive/ knew/ hadn’t missed
2. tells/ haven’t been listening/ have said
3. hadn’t received/ spoke
4. feel/ will bring
III .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. hardened					6. eduacational
2. survivors					7. attendances
3. advisory					8. computerize
4. Installation				9. unexpected
5. socially					10. dependent
IV .( 1p for 1 correct answer X 10 = 10 points)
1. On						6. on
2. for						7. for
3. to						8. at
4. from					9. from
5. with					10. out
SECTION III.reading (25 POINTS)
I.(10 points): 2 pts/ each correct answer.
1. Because the United States is a place where the previous identities of each immigrant group are melted down to create an intergrated, uniform society.
2. Because it better represents the diverse multicultural society of the United States.
3.It means a picture create by assembling many small stones or tiles.
4. They have established communities alongside those populated by the descendants of European immigrants.
5. They are Vietnamese Americans and Korean Americans.
II. (10 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
	1.C
	2. A
	3. C
	4. B
	5. A
	6. D
	7. B
	8. D
	9. B
	10. D
III.(5 points): 1 pts/ each correct answer.
	1. D
	2. C
	3. B
	4. C
	5. C
SECTION IV : WRITING (25 POINTS)
I.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. If it hadn’t been for your unsuspected talents as a mechanic, we would have been stranded there for hours.
2. He suggested inviting the Browns to the party on Sunday.
3. Had it not been for the death of the Prime Minister, the bill would have been passed.
4. That commentator, whose name I’ve forgotten, is very well-known.
5. Not until he came into the light did I recognise him.
II.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1. It’s worth asking George to help.
2. I haven’t seen him since I lived in London.
3. I am not used to going into town by car.
4. He plays this piece more beautifully than anybody/ anyone else.
5. I was prevented from going to work by transport strike.
III.( 1p for 1 correct answer X 5 = 5 points)
1.Teacher’s day in Vietnam falls on the twentieth of November each year.
2. Generally/ In general, it is meant for schoolchildren to show their appreciation to their teachers who have guided them in their studies.
3. It is a time to forget the bad experiences students may have of their teachers scolding and punishing them.
4. Students give their teachers flowers and small gifts.
5. Small parties are held and there is an atmosphere of fun and amazenment in the school.
II.10 points 
Gợi ý cách cho điểm:
1. Form: an essay (2points)
		+ Easy to read
		+ Coherent
2. Content: ( 4 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: ( 4 points)
		+ Appropriate vocabulary (1 point )
		+ Suitable connectors (0.5 point )
		+ Correct grammar (2 points )
		+ Punctuating/ Spelling (0.5 point)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 8
Part I: Grammar and Vocabulary – Choose the best answer
1. Our holiday was_________ by the weather.
A. spoilt		B. damaged			C. overcome		D. wasted
2. The________ charged by the architect for the plans of the new building were unusually high.
A. hire			B. price			C. fees			D. sum
3. He_________ his son of the dangers of driving too fast in his new car
A. warned		B. remembered		C. threatened		D. concerned
4. The child was_________ by a lorry on the safety crossing in the main street.
A. knocked out	B. run across			C. run out		D. knocked down
5. When Ali arrived in London he spent all his time_________ and visited all the important museums and buildings. 
A. sight-seeing	B. traveling			C. looking		D. touring
6. If you want a cheap air ticket you must_________ well in advance.
A. book		B. engage			C. reserve		D. buy
7. His sister was full of_________ for the way in which he had so quickly learned to drive a car.
A. pride		B. admiration			C. surprise		D. jealousy
8. He asked if we would_________ to share the room. 
A. accept		B. consider			C. agree		D. approve
9. I wondered whether you would like to_________ to the theater tomorrow.
A. visit			B. go away			C. go out		D. walk out
10. _________ I would like to say how pleased I am to be here.
A. Primarily		B. Foremost			C. Earliest		D. First
11. The independent arbitrator managed to_________ the confrontation between the union and the employers. 
A. refuse		B. confuse			C. refute		D. defuse
12. When I heard the footsteps behind me I was_________ that I would be attacked. 
A. horrified		B. terror-struck		C. terrorized		D. terrified
13. His illness made him_________ of concentration. 
A. incompetent	B. unable			C. incapable		D. powerless
14. Has the committee_________ a decision yet? 
A. done		B. made			C. arrived		D. voted
15. I am a bit hungry. I think_____________ something to eat. 
A. I’ll have		B. I’ll be having		C. I’m going to have	D. I’m having
16. What do you plan to do when you_____________ your course at college? 
A. finish		B. will finish			C. have finished	D. is going to finish
17. Where_____________? Which hairdresser did you go to? 
A. did you cut your hair				B. have you cut your hair
C. did you have cut your hair			D. did you have your hair cut
18. ‘Shall I stay here?’ ~ ‘I’d rather_____________ with us’. 
A. you come		B. you to come		C. you would come	D. you came
19. I_____________ saying what I think. 
A. believe		B. believe in			C. believe for		D. believe when
20. Somebody ran in front of the car as I was driving. Fortunately I_____________ just in time. 
A. could stop						B. could have stopped
C. managed to stop					D. must be able to stop
Part II: The passage below contains 10 mistakes. Underline the mistakes and write their correct forms in the space provided in the column on the right. (0) has been done as an example. 
	Traditional, mental tests have been divided into two types. Achievement tests are designed to measure acquiring skills and knowledge, particularly those that have been explicitness taught. The proficiency exams required by few states for high school graduation are achievement tests. Aptitude tests are designed and measure a person’s ability to acquire new skills but knowledge. For example, vocation aptitude tests can help you decide whether you would do better like a mechanic or musician. However, all mental tests are in some sense achievement tests because they assumption some sort of past learning or experience with certainly objects, words, or situations. Thedifference between achievement and aptitude tests is the degree and intention use.
	0. traditional → traditionally
1. _____________________
2. _____________________
3. _____________________
4. _____________________
5. _____________________
6. _____________________
7. _____________________
8. _____________________
9. _____________________
10. _____________________
Part III: Give the correct form of the words in brackets to fill in the blanks.
Dark black clouds in a dull sky meant one thing and one thing only: there was going to be a (1.thunder)….. Not one of us had brought an umbrella, or even a (2.rain)……. So when Jack suggested we should go to a museum, we all agreed immediately. As we had been (3. shop)………all morning we were now feeling very tired, it would be a (4. pleasant)………...to sit down. We took a bus and arrived just as large shops of rain were beginning to fall.
The museum was quite (5.desert)……and very peaceful. We sat down in the main hall and listened to the rain (6. beat)…….against the windows.
Suddenly, there was a great (7. disturb)……..at the (8. enter)……… a large party of schoolboys were (9. lead) ………in by a teacher. The poor man was trying to keep them quiet and threatening to punish them, but they did not pay the (10.slight)……. attention.
Section B: Reading 
Part I: 
	The shark is a meat- eating fish and one of the most feared animals of the sea. Scientists (1)………… about 250 species of fish as sharks. These fish live in oceans (2)………..the world, but they are most common in warm seas.
	Sharks (3)………….greatly in size and habits. Whale sharks, the largest kind of shark, may grow 60 feet long. A whale shark weighs up to 15 tons, more than twice (4)…………….much as an African elephant. The smallest shark may (5)…………..only 4 inches long and weigh less than 1 ounce. Some kinds of sharks live in the depths of the ocean, but (6)……………are found near the surface. Some species live in coastal waters, but others (7)……………far out at sea. A few species can even live in (8)…………..water.
	All sharks are carnivores (meat- eaters). Most of them eat (9)…………fish, including other sharks. A shark’s only natural enemy is a large shark. Sharks eat their prey whole, or they tear off large chunks of flesh. They also (10)………………..on dead or dying animals.
1.	A. classify	B. divide	C. organize	D. arrange
2.	A. all	B. through	C. throughout	D. over
3.	A. grow	B. rise	C. evolve	D. vary
4. 	A. as	B. so	C. very	D. exactly
5.	A. stretch	B. measure	C. develop	D. expand
6.	A. some others	B. others	C. different kinds	D. some sharks
7.	A. dwell	B. exist	C. emigrate	D. migrate
8.	A. fresh	B. sweet	C. light	D. clear
9.	A. uncooked	B. live	C. lively	D. alive
10. A. eat	B. swallow	C. exist	D. feed
Part II: Fill in each blank with a suitable word to fill in the blanks.
Vitamins are substances required for the proper functioning of the body. In this century, thirteen vitamins have been (1)…………
A lack of any vitamins in a person’s body can cause illness. In some cases, an excess of vitamins can also (2)…………to illness. For example, sailors in the past were prone to (3)…………from scurvy that is a disease resulting from the lack of vitamin C. It causes bleeding of the gum, loss of teeth and skin rashes. Sailors suffer from scurvy because they did not eat fruits and vegetables. Fruits and vegetables (4)…………vitamin C which is necessary for good (5)…………
Vitamin B complex is composed of eight different vitamins. A lack of any of these vitamins will lead to different (6)…………For instance, a person who has too little vitamin B1 will suffer from beri-beri, a disease that causes heart problems and mental (7)…………A lack of vitamin B2 results in eye and skin problems while deficiency of vitamin B6 causes problems of the nervous system. Too little vitamin B12 will cause anemia. The (8)…………that vitamin deficiencies caused certain diseases led doctors to cure people suffering from these illnesses by giving them doses of the (9)……...vitamins.
Today, vitamins are (10)…………in the form of pills and can easily be bought at any pharmacy.
Part III: Read the following passage and answer the questions by choosing the best answer among A, B, C or D.
Over the past 600 years, English has grown from a language of few speakers to become the dominant language of international communication. English as we know it today emerged around 1350, after having incorporated many elements of French that were introduced following the Norman invasion of 1066. Until the 1600s, English was, for the most part, spoken only in England and had not extended even as far as Wales, Scotland, or Ireland. However, during the course of the next two centuries, English began to spread around the globe as a result of exploration, trade (including slave trade), colonization, and missionary work. That small enslaves of English speakers became established and grew in various parts of the world. As these communities proliferated, English gradually became the primary language of international business, banking, and diplomacy.
Currently, more than 80 percent of the information stored on computer systems worldwide is in English. Two thirds of the world’s science writing is in English, and English is the main language of technology, advertising, media, international airports, and air traffic controllers. Today there are 700 million English users in the world, and over half of these are nonnative speakers, constituting the largest number of nonnative users of any language in the world.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. The number of nonnative users of English.	
B. The French influence on the English language.
C. The expansion of English as an internatonal language.	
D. The use of English for science and tecnology.
2. English began to be used beyond England approximately.............................
A. in 1066 	B. around 1350	C. before 1600 	D. after 1600
3. According to the passage, all of the following contributed to the spread of English around the world EXCEPT A. the slave trade 	B. the Norman invasion	
C. missionaries. 		D. colonization
4. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Most of the information stored on computer systems is in English.
B. Only one thirds of the world’s science writing is in languages other than English.
C. English is the only language used in technology, and advertising. 
D. International airports and air controllers use mostly English.
5. According to the passage, approximately how many nonnative users of English are there in the world today?
A. A quarter million 	B. Half a million	C. 350 million 	D. 700 million.
Part IV: 
	BITTER WATER HITS THE BIG TIME
Chocolate, which has its origins in South America, is now part of a multi-million pound worldwide business.
At Easter, British people spend over $230 million on chocolate. A massive eight per cent of all chocolate is bought at this time.
(1)____. Although the large scale industrial production of chocolate began in the last century, the cacao plant was first cultivated by the Aztec, Toltec and Mayan civilizations of Central America over three thousand years ago.
The cacao tree is an evergreen, tropical plant which is found in Africa, South and Central America, the West Indies and South East Asia. The fruit of this tree is melon-sized and contains 20-40 seeds. (2)____. In English – speaking countries, they are called cocoa beans. This is a misspelling from the 17th century when they were also called cacoa and cocao beans.
The Aztecs used cocoa beans as money. (3)____. This is from the world in the Aztec language, Nahuatl, meaning “bitter water”. (4)____. The Spanish found the drink more palatable mixed with cinnamon and sugar, but the recipe did not spread to the rest of Europe for another century. In the late 17th century, chocolate houses were set up in Europe’s capital cities, where people gathered to drink chocolate.
(5)____. But in 1826, CJ van Houten of the Netherlands invented chocolate powder. (6)____.
The age of the chocolatebar as we know it began in 1847 when a Bristol company, Fry and Sons, combined cocoa butter with pure chocolate liquor and sugar to produce a solid block that you could eat. (7)____.
At the turn of the century, the British chocolate market was dominated by French companies. In 1879 the English company Cadbury even named their Birmingham factory Bournville (ville is the French word for town) in the hope that a little glamour would rub off. But then came Cadbury’s famous Dairy Milk bar which began life as a Dairymaid in 1905. (8)____.It seems that, for the time being at least, chocolate intake in Britain has established at about four bars each week. (9)____. The latest market trick is the so-called “extended line”. This is when the humble chocolate bar becomes an ice cream, a soft drink or a dessert, to tempt chocoholics who have grown tired of conventional snacks.
At the other end of the production process, cacao farmers are still feeling the effects of a crash in cocoa bean prices at the end of 1980s. (10)____. Perhaps you could spare a thought for them as you munch your next chocolate bars.
 A. This was made by extracting most of the cocoa butter from the crushed beans.
B. A Swiss company then introduced milk solids to the process which gave us milk chocolate.
C. They also used them to make a drink called xocoatl.
D. Until the last century, the chocolate drink was made from solid blocks of chocolate which had to be melted down in hot water.
E. When dried they become cacao beans, which can be used to make chocolate.
F. Clever advertising which associated it with the healthy qualities of milk from the English countryside quickly established the bar as a rival to the more decadent French brands.
G. British manufacturers include up to 5 per cent vegetable fat in their chocolate, something forbidden elsewhere.
H. As most cacao farmers operate on a very small scale, many were forced out of business.
I. This has forced manufacturers to look for new ways to attract customers.
J. In Aztec times the chocolate drink was flavored with spices and used on ceremonial occasions and for welcoming visitors.
K. Only at Christmas do people eat more of the cocoa-based foodstuffs.
Section C: Writing
Part I: Rewrite the following sentences so that they have a similar meaning with the first one.
1. “Don’t forget to phone the police”, she said
She reminded him .................................................. .................................................. .........
2. It is believed that the man escaped in a stolen car. 
The man............................................... .................................................. ................... 
3. A small church lies at the foot of the hill.
At the foot .................................................. .................................................. .....................
4. If you changed your mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club . 
Were you .................................................. .................................................. ......................
5. We don’t have to do so many things to please him.
It is .................................................. .................................................. .................................
6. I’m sure he didn’t do it by himself.
He................................................ .................................................. ........................................
7. He can’t afford to go to America this summer.
He doesn’t .................................................. .................................................. ......................
8. Timmy has become confident as a result of his success . 
Timmy’s success has turned............................................ ................................................
9. I haven't seen my uncle for a long time.
It's a long time .................................................. .................................................. ....................
10. She dances beautifully and she sings sweetly, too.
Not only .................................................. .................................................. .............................
PART II: Rewrite the sentence, using the given word.
1. You should think about the price before you decide whether to buy it or not. (consideration)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
2. People don’t want to buy cars with large engines any more. (call)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
3. Twenty years ago this region produced twice as much coal as it does now.(halved)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
4. The prime minister in unlikely to call an early general election. (likelihood)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
5. The policeman acted quickly and averted an accident (prompt)
→………………………………………………………………………………………….
Part III: Write a composition (300 words) about the following topic: 
How do movies and television influence people’s behavior? Use reasons and specific examples to support your answer.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Keys – practice 8
Part I
	Câu
	1
	2
	3
	4
	5
	6
	7
	8
	9
	10
	
	A
	C
	A
	D
	A
	A
	B
	A
	C
	D
	Câu
	11
	12
	13
	14
	15
	16
	17
	18
	19
	20
	
	D
	D
	C
	B
	A
	A
	D
	D
	B
	C
Part II 
1. acquiring → acquired	6. vocation → vocational
2. explicitness → explicitly	7. like → as
3. few → a few	8. assumption → assume
4. and → to		9. certainly → certain
5. but → to		10. intention → intended
Part III
	1. thunderstorm
2. raincoat
3. shopping
4. pleasure
5. deserted	
	6. beating
7. disturbance
8. entrance
9. led
10. slightest
READING
Part I 
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D
Part II 
	1.discovered
	2. lead
	3. suffer
	4. contain
	5. health
	6. diseases
	7. disorders
	8. knowledge
	9. necessary
	10. available
Part III
1. C 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. C 
Part IV 
1.K 2.E 3.C 4.J 5.D 6.A 7.B 8.F 9.I 10H
Section C:
1. She reminded him to phone the police.
2. The man is believed to have escaped in a stolen car
3. At the foot of the hill lies a small church
4. Were you to change you mind, you’ll be welcome to join our club.
5. It is unnecessary to do so many things to please him.
6. He can’t have done it by himself.
7. He doesn’t have enough money to go to America this summer.
8. Timmy’s success has turned him into a confident person.
9. It’s a long time since I last saw my uncle/ I saw my uncle for the last time.
10. Not only does she dance beautifully but she also sings sweetly.
Part II
1. You should take the price into consideration before you decide whether to buy it or not
2. There is no(longer any)/ (There isn’t much) call for cars.
3 .Coal production/ (The coal produced) in this region has been halved in the 20 years.
4. There is little likelihood/ (The likelihood is small) of the PM calling an…./that the PM will call a…….
5. The policeman’s prompt action averted/ the prompt action of the policeman averted an accident
ENGLISH PRACTICE 9
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. literature	B. concentrate	C. comfortable	D. rhinoceros
2. A. produce	B. protect	C. project	D. purchase
3. A. policeman	B. candidate	C. fantastic	D. position
4. A. counterpart	B. outstanding	C. applicant	D. wilderness
5. A. mosquito	B. document	C. literature	D. business
6. A. magazine	B. preference	C. cigarette	D. engineer
7.A. regardless	B. coincide	C. specific	D. inventive
8. A. promise	B. tonight	C. furnish	D. reason
9. A. electronic	B. proficiency	C. petroleum	D. equivalent
10. A. substantial	B. dramatic	C. terrorist	D. demolish
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge			B. line			C. border			D. rim
2. When you _______ your destination, your tour guide will meet you at the airport.
A. arrive		B. get			C. reach			D. achieve 
3. Rachel is mad ______ the Eurovision.
A. about		B. for			C. from			D. against
4. We are pleased to announce that Keith Danish ______ replace Susan Williams as Operations Manager from 24th September.
A. does		B. is about to 		C. is to				D. is due
5. Make sure you mix the ingredients well, ________ you might get lumps in your cake.
A. unless		B. otherwise		C. provided			D. supposing.
6. If you hadn’t taken the money, you _____ in prison now.
A. wouldn’t be	B. wouldn’t have been 	C. haven’t been	D. hadn’t been.
7. The bank is reported in the local newspaper _______ in broad daylight yesterday.
A. to be robbed 	B. robbed 		C. to have been robbed 	D. having been robbed 
8. Fiona can’t _______ about the meeting. I reminded her this morning!
A. forget 		B. have forgotten 	C. be forgetting 		D. have been forgetting
9. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined 		B. investigated 	C. researched 			D. looked into
10. Dr parker gave my mum a lovely ______for spaghetti carbonara.
A. receipt		B. recipe		C. prescription 		D. paper
11. I was shocked when I crashed the car but at least I wasn’t __________. 
A. injured 		B. broken		C. damaged 			D. spoilt
12. I glanced at the newspaper and saw that the _______ said “President Resigns”
A. headline		B. heading 		C. subtitle			D. chapter
13. I think my favorite _____ is probably table tennis.
A. athletics		B. exercise		C. sport 			D. gym
14. I think the discussion has gone on _______ and we should make a decision.
A. long enough 	B. such long 		C. so long 			D. enough long 
15. A: “Could you do something for me?” B: _________________
A. Certain!		B. Certainly		C. Right!			D. Never mind!	
16. Lucy was late for school this morning because the alarm didn’t _______ as usual.
A. ring off B. get off C. go off 			D. take off 
17. She applied for paid leave but her boss rejected her application__________.
A. in hand B. on hand C. at hand 		D. out of hand 
18. I’m older than you are, ____________?
A. am I B. isn’t it C. aren’t I 	 		D. aren’t you
19. ______ parrots are native to tropical regions is untrue.
A. That all B. All C. Why all 			D. Since all
20. Jane: “Would you rather go to the beach or to the mountains?” Kim: “_______________”
A. That’s very nice of you C. I’d love to go
B. Thanks for the mountains D. The beach definitely
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. Write your 
answers on your answer sheet.	
 (
It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first record fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires and intricate knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins when a presenter of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands, After the representative identifies a promised band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time to investigate the band itself as well as current trends for popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making personnel connections within the different 
departments that will handle their recordings.
)
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
 (
Culture clashes
One (1)______(
CHARACTER
) of the modern world is that people increasingly find themselves living side by side with people from other cultures. While in the past people with different cultures were able to live quite (2)______(
SEPARATE
), high mobility and freedom of movement mean that we are more likely today to be confronted with people whose way the life is (3)______(
FAMILIAR
) to us. In such circumstances, (4)______(
RACE
) is a read danger.
People feel a tremendous (5)_____(
LOYAL
) to their own culture, and are often unwilling to develop an (6)______(
APPRECIATE
) of the positive aspects of other cultures. They may feel that another culture presents a threat to their own (7)______(
INHERIT
), one that could even lead to the (8)_____(
APPEAR
) of certain aspects of their way of life. Often, however, this threat is more a matter of (9)_____(
PERCEIVE
) than reality and different groups live in (10) ______(
RELATE
) 
harmony in many parts of the world
)
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
	 This symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
	The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well mold, come into contact with the victim’s membranes, they can cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
						(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1.It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to
A. fodder for cattle				B. a seasonal discomfort
C. viral bacteria 					D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly
A. abdominal		B. intestinal		C. respiratory		D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response toallergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience 
A. hunger pains					B. mood swings 	
C. nervous blockages 				D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to 
A. reprieve			B. reprisal		C. irritation		D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by 
A. wind			B. food			C. travelers		D. air passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to 
A. obstruction 		B. bleeding 		C. enlargement 	D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to
A. avoid interactions with other patients 
B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence
D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
A. pollen			B. mold		C. flowers		D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss 
A. how the nervous system alerts patients. 
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. What flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
 II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Down from the mountains
On the fourth day, We started our descent from the mountain range. We walked down the narrow track in single (1)______, taking care not to slip on the wet surface. We followed the river down a steep-sided (2)_____, stopping just once along the way to take a shower under a beautiful______(3). Soon the (4)_______ began to change, with more and more trees and (5) ______vegetation. Several (6)_______ of birds flew overhead, and we saw an amazing multi-coloured snake lying under a small (7)______ as we walked past. By the afternoon, the countryside was changing again as we approached the coast. Here, there were (8)_______ where farmers grew a variety of crops such as wheat, and we saw a (9)_________ of cows near a farmhouse. Then we climbed up and down some tall, grass-covered (10)_______ , and at last we had arrived at the sea.
1. A. line 			B. file 		C. track			D. queue
2. A. channel			B. lagoon		C. canal			D. valley
3. A. pond			B. waterfall		C. current			D. bath
4. A. scenery			B. sights		C. settings			D.scenes
5. A. dense			B. tight			C. intense			D. close
6. A. crews			B. bunches		C. flocks			D. crowds
7. A. wood			B. hedge		C. bush				D. forest
8. A. deserts			B. fields		C. shores			D. jungles
9. A. team			B. gang			C. pack				D. herd
10. A. dunes			B. beaches		C. plains			D. fences
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Travel Insurance
When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (2)_______ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning money (4) ______ making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______ some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £ 50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck is about to run (8)____ . (9) ______ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance (10) _____ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.
PART D. WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
1. Is there any chance of his coming to the party? (likely)
 Is he ________________________________________________________?
2. I’m sure it wasn’t Jim who did it. (have)
 It ________________________________________________________
3. He promised me he would be back before midnight. (word)
 He _________________________________________________________
4. He prefers cycling to walking. (prefer) 
He would _____________________________________________________.
5. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one. (much)
The blue dress is _______________________________________________
II. Essay writing
” Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue, school violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write about 250 words.
…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
Keys – practice 9
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
I. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. literature	B. concentrate	C. comfortable	D. rhinoceros
2. A. produce	B. protect	C. project	D. purchase
3. A. policeman	B. candidate	C. fantastic	D. position
4. A. counterpart	B. outstanding	C. applicant	D. wilderness
5. A. mosquito	B. document	C. literature	D. business
6. A. magazine	B. preference	C. cigarette	D. engineer
7. A. regardless	B. coincide	C. specific	D. inventive
8. A. promise	B. tonight	C. furnish	D. reason
9. A. electronic	B. proficiency	C. petroleum	D. equivalent
10. A. substantial	B. dramatic	C. terrorist	D. demolish
PART B. LEXICO – GRAMMAR 
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.05/item)
	1. C
	2. C
	3. A
	4. C
	5. B
	6. A
	7. C
	8. B
	9. A
	10. B
	11. A
	12. A
	13. C
	14. A
	15. B
	16. C
	17. D
	18. C
	19. A
	20. D
II. There are 10 mistakes in the following passage. Find and then correct them. Write your 
answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)	
	1. the second → a second
	6. signature → signing
	2. and (intricate) → an (intricate)
	7. to investigate → investigating
	3. is functioned → functions
	8. for → in
	4. presenter → representative
	9. reciprocates → reciprocate
	5. promised → promising 
	10. personnel → personal
III. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
 1. characteristic 2. separately 3. unfamiliar 4. racism 5. loyalty
 6. appreciation 7. heritage 8. disappearance 9. perception 10. relative
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
	1.B
	2.C
	3. B
	4. B
	5. C
	6. A
	7. A
	8. B
	9. D
	10. B
II. Complete the following passage by choosing the correct option (A, B, C or D) to fill in blanks. Write your answers on your answer sheet.(1pt; 0.1/item)
	1. B
	2.D
	3. B
	4. A
	5. A
	6. C
	7. C
	8. B
	9. D
	10. A
III. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (1pt; 0.1/item)
1. wrong 2. which 3. others/ some 4. by 5. example/ instance
6. fact 7. of 8. out 9. Thanks 10. whether/ if
PART D. WRITING (2pt)
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answers on your answer sheet. (0.5 pt; 0.1/item)
1. Is he likely to come to the party?
2. It can’t have been Jim who did it.
3. He gave me his word that he would be back before midnight
4. He would prefer to cycle rather than walk.
5. The blue dress is three time as much as that one.
II. Essay writing (1.5pt)
” Nowadays, the increasing number of schools in Vietnam are facing with the alarming issue, school violence. What do you think are the causes of this? What solutions can you suggest?”
You should write about 250 words
Total score: 1.5 points; 
· Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
· Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
· Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
· Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 10
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. different	B. tradition	C. opera	D. capital
2. A. individual	B. unemployment	C. difficult	D. Population
3. A. apply	B. appear	C. visit	D. attend
4. A. kindergarten 	B. conventional	C. contaminate	D. curriculum
5. A. corporate	B. different	C. engineer	D. difficult
6. A. adorable	B. ability	C. entertainment	D. impossible
7. A. company	B. customer	C. atmosphere 	D. employment
8. A. university	B. institution	C. preferential	D. indicative
9. A. environment 	B. difficulty	C. inhabitant	D. community
10. A. impossible	B. entertainment	C. adorable	D. ability
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. The audience couldn’t listen to the lengthy and pointless speech _________.
A. far any more	B. any longer		C. any more far	D. any lengthier
2. He missed two most important lectures. He _________very ill.
A. had to be		B. must be		C. was to be		D. must have been
3. Allan: “Do you mind if I use your dictionary?”	Nick: “_______.”
A. I’m afraid not	B. Without doubt 	C. No, feel free 	D. Straight ahead
4. Oh, I’m always forgetting _______ these medicines. Is that before or after meal, Ron?
A. when to take 					B. what I will take with
C. on which I should take 				D. when I take
5. We rang the doorbell again _______ they hadn’t heard it the first time.
A. because 		B. although 		C. for fear of		D. in case
6. How boring the lecture was! I _______ just in the first half of it.
A. dropped off 	B. fell out 		C. called off 		D. came out
7. Will it make any _______ to them if we deliver their equipment tomorrow?
A. displeasure		B. alteration 		C. difference 		D. conflict
8. What time are you _______ duty? Let’s have a coffee after that.
A. over			B. on 			C. off 			D. out of
9. Don’t give up your harboring dream. _______ working harder and harder.
A. Try out 		B. Keep on 		C. Speed up 		D. Go off
10. It’s been a good year. I’ve written two books and a couple of articles, and _______ are now in print.
A. both of which	B. both of them 	C. all of which 	D. all of them
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
With the development of fast motorway systems in many countries, once remote parts of the countryside are (1. INCREASE) __________ becoming (2. ACCESS) ____________to people who live in towns and cities. In many parts of the world, rising (3. PERSON) ____________incomes have resulted in mass (4. OWN) ____________ of motor cars at a time when people have more leisure time to fill.
This means that there is a lot of (5. PRESS) ___________ on the countryside to accept a growing number of visitors. In Britain, for example, the (6. NATION)____________ parks are used by more than one hundred million people annually. 
In (7. ADD) __________, similar numbers visit areas that do not enjoy the same level of (8. PROTECT) ____________. Some people regard this invasion of the countryside as (9. DESIRE) ____________and they have begun campaigning to try and save some aspects of (10. TRADITION)____________ rural culture.
III. In most lines of this text there is one unnecessary word. It is either incorrect grammatically, or does not fit the sense of the text. Write the unnecessary word in the space beside the text. Tick (√) each correct line. There are two examples at the beginning. Transfer your answers to your answer sheet. 
	I am really keen on going to the cinema, so I’ve got lots of favourite films. But the best one as I’ve seen lately is called “Pressure”. In some ways, I suppose that you could regard it as a detective film but it’s different from most films of that kind because the characters are they such unusual people. The detective in it, for example, is a computer expert who solves crimes on her computer using information given to her by her assistants, who go out and interview to people. The case in the film concerns about the wife of a millionaire, who has gone missing. Sometimes the plot gets a bit complicated but it isn’t too hard to keep up with it. There are a lot of strange characters in it, such as a man who always wears two hats on, and some of the scenes really made me laugh. Also, there is a big surprise at the end but I won’t say what that is in the case you go to see it. It’s very well acted and I also like the music in it. But what do I really like most about the film is that it’s so original- I’ve certainly seen another film quite like that.
	0 …√………
 00 …as………
 1 …………
 2 …….………
 3 ….………
 4 ……………
 5 ……..………
 6 …….…….
 7 …….….…
 8……….……
 9. ……….……..
10. …………….
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
	Have you ever thought about the names of the months? Why are “January” and “February” not called “Primo” or “Secondo”? Is it because the original names were created in ancient times? Or is it because the originators preferred odd words?
	Take February, for example. Say it aloud a few minutes and you start to wonder. Most people don’t know who developed these names. However, a little research reveals that the names of the months came mostly from a combination of the names of Roman gods and goddesses, important festivals, and the original numbers of the months.
	Julius Caesar and Pope Gregory XIII change the calendar to make it more exact. Caesar developed a new calendar of 364 and a quarter days, the time it takes the earth to orbit the sun from one spring season to the next. The Pope’s astronomers refined the calendar regarding leap years; they determined that there should be no leap year in years ending in 00- unless they were divisible by 400; the years 1700, 1800, 1900 and 2100 would not be considered leap years, while the years 1600 and 2000 would be. This new Gregorian calendar was so accurate that today, scientists need only add leap seconds every few years to the clock in order to keep the calendar matching the Earth’s cycles.
1. What is the topic of the passage?
	A. how the modern calendar was named and developed
	B. how the months were named
	C. how the leap year system was developed
	D. how accurate the modern day is calendar
2. It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that the author think the names of the months are __________.
	A. odd		B. difficult to pronounce	C. inappropriate 	D. none of the answers
3. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ______________.
A. calendars	B. days				C. astronomersD. years
4. The word “accurate” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
	A. interesting	B. informative			C. correct		D. simple
5. Which of the following will be a leap year?
	A. 2300	B. 2400			C. 2200		D. 2500
6. Which of the following is true of the Gregorian calendar?
	A. It needs major improvements.
	B. It was so well designed, it needs little adjusting today.
	C. It copied the Roman calendar’s formula of leap years.
	D. none of the answers
7. Why is Caesar important in calendar making?
	A. He changed the length of the year		
B. He extended summer.
	C. He has a month named for him		
D. He altered the number of days in the year.
8. In what order is the information in the passage presented?
	A. Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian calendar, the modern calendar
	B. Roman Gods, important festivals, original numbers of months
	C. names of months, Caesar’s calendar, the Gregorian Calendar
	D. none of the answers
9. The word “refined” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____________.
	A. studied			B. invented		C. observed	D. improved
10. Why is the number of 364 and a quarter important?
	A. It is the length of time from the beginning of spring to the end of winter.
	B. It is the length of a planetary year.
	C. It is the most accurate number for calendars.
	D. It was a number randomly chosen by Caesar for his calendar.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
The legend of the root
	Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) ____ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) ____ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weight in gold.
	(3) ____ the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the ____ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) ____ the word panacea, coming from the Greek for “all healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may (6) ____ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with synthetic drug.
	Today, ginseng is (7) ____ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) ____ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) ____ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable properties are (10) ____ than just a legend.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
Environmental Concerns
Earth is the only place we know of on the universe that can support human life. (1) ________ human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) _______ on consuming two- thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so (3) ________ to stay alive we are rapidly destroying the (4) _______resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) ___________built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (6) ______. We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result the planet’s ability to support people is being (7) _______ at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (8) _______ increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) _______ us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources they will (10) _______ indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively they will soon run out and everyone will suffer.
1. A. Although			B. Still			C. Yet			D. Despite
2. A. continues		B. repeats		C. carries		D. follows
3. A. already			B. just			C. for 			D. entirely
4. A. alone			B. individual		C. lone			D. only
5. A. sooner			B. neither		C. either		D. rather
6. A. quite			B. greatly		C. utterly		D. completely
7. A. stopped			B. narrowed		C. reduced		D. cut
8. A. doing			B. having		C. taking		D. making		
9. A. hold			B. maintain		C. stay			D. keep
10. A. last			B. stand		C. go			D. remain
PART D: WRITING
I. Complete the second sentence so that it has the similar meaning to the first sentence. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
1. Its lack of irregular verbs makes Esperanto a unique language.
 	Unlike_________________________________________________.
2. Mr. Smith knew little about the Internet, so he didn’t invest into any computer companies.
 	Had_________________________________________________.
3. The Board of Directors discussed the business in length, but came to no decision. 
The Board of Directors had ________________________________.
4. When she got to the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
On_________________________________________________.
5. Barbara runs a successful company and she also manages to look after her five children.
Not only_________________________________________________.
II. Write a passage of about 200 words to show your opinion on the following statement:
“Some people believe that children’s leisure activities must be educational, otherwise they are a complete waste of time”
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--------------THE END --------------
Keys – practice 10
PART A. PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different
1. A. different	B. tradition	C. opera	D. capital
2. A. individual	B. unemployment	C. difficult	D. Population
3. A. apply	B. appear	C. visit	D. attend
4. A. kindergarten B. conventional	C. contaminate	D. curriculum
5. A. corporate	B. different	C. engineer	D. difficult
6. A. adorable	B. ability	C. entertainment	D. impossible
7. A. company	B. customer	C. atmosphere D. employment
8. A. university	B. institution	C. preferential	D. indicative
9. A. environment B. difficulty	C. inhabitant	D. community
10.A. impossible	B. entertainment	C. adorable	D. ability
PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (30 points)
I. 10 points- Half a point for each correct answer)
	 1. B
	2. D
	3. C
	4. A
	5. D
	6. A
	7. C
	8. C
	9. B
	10. D
II. 10 points (one point for each correct answer)
	1. increasingly
	2. accessible
	3. personal
	4. ownership
	5. pressure
	6. national
	7. addition
	8. protection
	9. undesirable
	10. traditional
III. 10 points (one point for each correct answer)
	1. √
	2. they
	3. √
	4. to
	5. about
	6. √
	7. √
	8. on
	9. the
	10. do
PART C: READING (30 POINTS)
I. (10 points: one point for each correct answer)
	1. A
	2. A
	3. C
	4. C
	5. B
	6. B
	7. A
	8. C
	9. D
	10. B
II. (10 points: one point for each correct answer). 	
	1. as 
	2. so
	3. despite
	4. plant
	5. like
	6. have/cause/produce
	7. no
	8. such
	9. how
	10. more
III. (10 points: one point for each correct item).
	1. C
	2. C
	3. B
	4. D
	5. C
	6. D
	7. C
	8. D
	9. D
	10. A
PART D: WRITING (20 POINTS)
I. (5 points: one point for each correct answer).
1. Unlike other languages, Esperanto has no irregular verbs.
2. Had Mr. Smith known something / more / a little more / some more about the Internet, he would have invested into some computer companies.
3. The Board of Directors had a long discussion on / about the business, but came to / reached / made no decision.
4. On her arrival at the party, everyone was dancing and singing.
5. Not only does Barbara run a successful company, but she also manages to look after her five children /but she manages to look after her five children as well.
II. 15 points: Bài viết cần phù hợp về hình thức, ngôn ngữ và nội dung.
1. Form: passage (2 points)
		- Easy to follow
		- Coherent
2. Content: (8 points)
+Successful fulfillment of the task.
3. Language: (5 points)
		+ Appropriate vocabulary (1.5 point)
		+ Suitable connectors (1 point\
		+ Correct grammar (1.5 points)
		+ Punctuating / Spelling (1 point)
--------------THE END--------------
12
ENGLISH PRACTICE 11
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
21. A.shower		B.allow			C.shout			D.arrow
22. A.increase		B.creation		C.mean			D.cheat
23. A.danger		B.exchange		C.blame		D.anger
24. A.these			B.theory		C.worth		D.threaten
25. A. chamber 		B. ancient 		C. danger 		D. ancestor
26. A. smoothly 		B. southern 		C. breath 		D. airworthy
27. A dozen 		B glove 		C love 			D stove
28. A kites 			B catches 		C oranges 		D buzzes
29. A wood 		B good 			C food 			D childhood
30. A whistled 		B laughed 		C lodged 		D received
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
16. A. community 	B. developing 	C. conditioner 	D. interested
17. A. continue 	B. importance 	C. different 	D. directed
18. A. medicines 	B. opposite 	C. pollution 	D. capable
19. A. preservation 	B. inspiration 	C. disposable 	D. popularity
20. A. exhausted 	B. atmosphere 	C. suspect 	D. computer
II. Choose the word, phrase or expression which best completes each sentence.
21. Hoa: “Are you going to buy a new computer or just continue using the old one?”
Mary: “_________”
A. Yes, I am. 					B. Yes, I’d like one. Thank you. 
C. That’s impossible. I can’t afford a new one.	D. Neither. I’m going to lease one.
22. Mr. Black: “What a lovely house you have!” 
Mr John: “_________”
A. No problem 				B. Thank you. Hope you will drop in.
C. Of course not, it’s not costly 		D. I think so.
23. You have never been to Italy, ________?
A. have you 		B. haven’t you 	C. did you 		D. had you
24. You can’t tell what someone is like just from their ________.
A. character 		B. looking 		C. appearance 	D. personality
25. “How is it going?” - “________”
A. By bike 			B. Not much 		C. It sounds better 	D. Mustn’t grumble
26. ________ a dentist, Mike is very concerned about having healthy teeth.
A. Because 			B. He is 		C. As 			D. That he is
27. ________, you need to achieve a score of 60% or more.
A. To pass this test 				B. For being passed this test 
C. In order pass this test 				D. So that to pass this test
28. As a famous person ________ many children admire, it is important for her to act responsibly.
A. whose 			B. whom 		C. which 		D. when
29. The brochure says that the hotel has a great ________ of the sea.
A. appearance 		B. look 		C. sight 		D. view
30. Our new coach is popular ________ the whole team.
A. with 			B. to 			C. by 			D. for
31. As soon as you ________ that, I’d like you to go to bed.
A. have done 		B. did 		C. will do 		D. will have done
32. Margaret was slow at school, but she went on ________ Prime Minister.
A. being 			B. to be 		C. having been 	D. to have been
33. In 1870, ________, John D. Rockefeller and others created the Standard Oil Company.
A. in spite of oil prices fluctuated 		B. despite fluctuating oil prices 
C. but the oil prices fluctuated 			D. oil prices were fluctuating
34. They’re staying in rented accommodation for the time ________.
A. going 			B. making 		C. doing 		D. being
35. “I have an idea. Let’s go for a swim on Sunday afternoon”. - “________”
A. OK, what time? 	 B. You’re kidding 	C. I know 		D. I’m sure
III. Give the correct form of the words in brackets.
36. We found it ____________ (thrill) to your wonderful news. THRILLING
37. He left the room without any ____________ (explain). EXPLANATION
38. He didn’t feel happy because he worked ____________ (success). UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. Many people expressed ____________ (disagree) with the whole idea. DISAGREEMENT
40. There was a ____________ (wide) dissatisfaction with the government’s policies. WIDESPREAD
41. Her health has ____________ (bad) considerably since we last saw her. WORSENED
42. A lot of plants and animals could be used as medicines against cancer, AIDS, heart diseases and other ____________ (sick). SICKNESSES
43. He was ____________ (information) of the consequences in advance. INFORMED
44. I was kept ____________ (wake) last night by the noise from a party in the flat above. AWAKE
45. This road is so bad that it needs ____________ (surface). RESURFACING
IV. Choose the underlined word or phrase in each sentence that needs correcting.
46. Last week unless my mother had had enough money, she would have bought that toy for me.
47. It often takes me about fifteen minutes to go to work from here by foot.
48. Those people say that it is such polluted air that they can’t breath, don’t they?
49. It is noisy enough in this room, so I would rather you stop shouting like that.
50. Dr. Roberts, the first woman to be elected president of the university, is intelligent, capable and awareness of the problem to be solved. 
V. Fill in the gaps
	 A. terrible B. size C. hope D. wrong E. loose F. problem G. want 
Choosing clothes can be difficult. Some people (51)________ to be fashionable, but they don’t want to look exactly like everybody else. Not all clothes are suitable for work or school, perhaps because they are not formal enough, or simply not comfortable. It is easy to buy the (52)_________ size, and find that your trousers are too tight, especially if you are a little bit overweight. Very (53)________ clothes make you feel slim, but when they have shrunk in the washing machine, then you have the same (54)________! If you buy light cotton clothes, then they might not be warm enough for winter. If your shoes are not tight, and if you aren’t dressed for the cold, you might look good, but feel (55)________! 
II. Read the following passage and decide which option A, B, C or D best fits each space. 
(10 points)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries. As (56)________as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had no libraries at all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (57)_______ the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education Act of 1965, ( 58)_______provided funds for school districts to improve their education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (59) ________, many educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not increased sufficiently to meet the rising (60)______ of new library technologies such as computer databases and Internet access.
 Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools, individual school districts (61) _______ on funds from local property taxes to meet the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public schools tend to reflect the (62) ______ capabilities of the communities in which they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (63) _______ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional support. In (64) ______, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally staffed by volunteers, who organize and (65) ______ books that are often out-of-date, irrelevant, or damaged.
	56. A. freshly
57. A. though
58. A. that
59. A. Nevertheless
60. A. fine
61. A. go
62. A. educational
63. A. for
64. A. country
65. A. attain
	B. recently
B. with
B. who
B. Therefore
B. fee
B. come
B. economical
B. with
B. converse
B. obtain 
	C. frequently
C. during
C. which
C. Consequently
C. cost
C. rely
C. political 
C. on
C. contrast
C. contain
	D. newly
D. when
D. this
D. Otherwise
D. sum
D. stay
D. financial
D. by
D. conflict
D. maintain
III. Read the passage and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D(10 points).
Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810, a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850’s an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860’s, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year.
Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban population created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890’s, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. As easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870’s, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920’s and 1930’s. 
Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavily in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare.
66. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Causes of food spoilage					
B. Commercial production of ice
C. Population movements in the nineteenth century
D. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet
67. The phrase “in season” in line 1 refers to
A. a particular time of year			B. a kind of weather 
C. an official schedule 				D. a method of flavoring
68. During the 1860’s, canned food products were
A. unavailable in rural areas 			B. available in limited quantities 
C. shipped in refrigerator cars 	D. a staple part of the American diet.
69. It can be inferred that railroad refrigerator cars came into use
A. before 1860 		B. before 1890 	C. after 1900 	D. after 1920
70. The word” them” in line 13 refers to
A. refrigerator cars 	B.growers		C. perishables	 D. distances.
71. The word” fixture” in line 18 is closest in meaning to
A. commonplace object 	B. substance 	C. luxury item D. mechanical device
72.The author implies that in the 1920’s and 1930’s home deliveries of ice
A. increased in cost 				B. occurred only in the summer
C. decreased in number 				D. were on an irregular schedule
73. The word “ Nevertheless” in line 21 is closest meaning to
A. occasionally 	 B. however C. therefore 		D. because 
74. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Drying 		 B. Chemical additives C. Canning 	D. Cold storage 
75. Which of the following statements is supported by the passage?
A. Most farmers in the United States raised only fruits and vegetables.
B. People who lived in cities demanded home delivery of foods.
C. Tin cans and iceboxes helped to make many foods more widely available.
D. Commercial ice factories were developed by railroad owners
E. Writing
I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentences printed before. (5 points)
76. Having nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
 - Since.............................................................................................................................
77. She was not only bad-tempered but also very lazy.
 - As well ........................................................................................................................
78. “ Nothing will persuade me to apply for that kind of job.” She said.
 _ She flatly.......................................................................................................................
79. The school I studied at last year was better than this one.
 - This school isn’t.............................................................................................................
80. You must leave now, or you’ll miss the bus.
 - You’ll miss......................................................................................................................
II. Use the suggested words and phrases to write complete sentences of a letter. (10 points)
Dear Sir or Madam.
81. I/ write/ complain/ hair drier/ buy/ your shop/ last Saturday/ and/ treatment/ I receive/ when/ I try/ return/ a few days later.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
82.I buy/ hair drier/ Wednesday, November 22nd.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
83. first time/ try/ use/ handle become/ extremely hot/ and within a few minutes/ part/ plastic casing/ begin/ melt.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................................................
84. I turn/ off/ immediately/ return/ with/ receipt/ your shop/ Saturday.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
85. I explain/ situation/ one/ assistants/ ask/ money back/ but / be told/ speak/ you.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
86. Unfortunately you/ not available/ that day/ I/ write instead.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
87. I enclose/ hair drier/ copy of/ original receipt.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
88. Please send/ full fund/ soon/ possible.
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
Yours faithfully,
III. Write a paragraph of about 120 words on the following topic: ( 10 points)
What club do you want to be founded in your school? Why?
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
............................................................................................................................................ ............................................................
 
Keys – practice 11
I. Choose the word that has a different stress pattern from the others.
1. A.shower		B.allow			C.shout			D.arrow
2. A.increase		B.creation		C.mean			D.cheat
3. A.danger		B.exchange		C.blame		D.anger
4. A.these		B.theory		C.worth			D.threaten
5. A. chamber 		B. ancient 		C. danger 		D. ancestor
6. A. smoothly 		B. southern 		C. breath 		D. airworthy
7. A dozen 		B glove 		C love 			D stove
8. A kites 			B catches 		C oranges 		D buzzes
9. A wood 		B good 			C food 			D childhood
10. A whistled 		B laughed 		C lodged 		D received
B. PHONETICS: ( 5 points) ( 1 point for each correct answer)
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. B
C. GRAMMAR – VOCABULARY – LANGUAGE FUNCTIONS.
I. 
21. D 22. B 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. C 27. A 28.B 
29. D 30.A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. D 35.A
II. 
36. THRILLING
37. EXPLANATION
38. UNSUCCESSFULLY
39. DISAGREEMENTS
40. WIDESPREAD
41. WORSENED
42. SICKNESSES
43. INFORMED
44. AWAKE
45. RESURFACING
III. 
46.A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50.C
D. READING:
I. 51. G 52.D 53.E 54.F 55.A
II. 
56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. C 
 61. C 62. D 63. B 64. C 65. D
III. 
66.D 67. A 68. B 69.B 70.C 71.A 72.C 73.B 74.B 75.C
E. WRITING.
I. 
76. Since we had nothing else to do, we decided to go for a walk.
 Or (Since we didn’t have anything else to do, we decided to go for a walk.)
77. As well as being bad-tempered, she’s very lazy.
78. She flatly refused to apply for that kind of job.
79. This school isn’t as/so good as the one ( that/which) I studied at last year.
 Or (This school isn’t as/so good as the one at which/ where I studied last year.)
80. You’ll miss the bus if you don’t leave now.
 Or (You’ll miss the bus unless you leave now.)
II. Dear Sir or Madam. 
81. I am writing to complain about the/a hair drier (0.5)( which/that I) bought in your shop last Saturday(0.5) and the treatment (which/that) I received (0.5)when trying/I tried to return it a few days later.(0.5)
82. I bought the hair drier(0.5) on Wednesday, November 22nd.(0.5)
83. The first time I tried to use it,(0.5) the handle became extremely hot (0.5)and within a few minutes part of the plastic casing began to melt.(0.5)
84. I turned it off immediately (0.5)and returned it with the receipt to your shop on Saturday.(0.5)
85. I explained the situation to one of the/ your assistants (0.5)and asked for my/the money back(0.5) but I was told (that I had) to speak to you.(0.5)
86. Unfortunately, you were not available that day,(0.5) so I am writing instead.(0.5)
87. I enclose the hair drier(0.5) and a/the copy of the original receipt.(0.5)
88. Please send me a full refund (0.5) as soon as possible (0.5)
Yours faithfully.
ENGLISH PRACTICE 12
PART I: PHONETICS. (1, 0 POINT).
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words in the same group. Write your answer in the numbered box.
1. 	A. exposure		B. Terminal		C. utterance		D. discipline 
2. 	A. Economy		B. Elaborate		C. Assassinate		D. Fascinate
3. 	A. mountain		B. sustain		C. contain		D. retain
4. 	A. fulltime		B. farmhand		C. bookshop		D. tradesman 
5. 	A. Metropolitan	B. Entrepreneurial	C. Hippopotamus	D. curiosity
6. 	A. company		B. comfortable		C. together		D. business
7. 	A. Associate		B. Formal		C. Movement		D. militant
8. 	A. Important		B. Cigarette3		C. Protection2		D. informal
9. 	A. introduce		B. conversation	C. independent	D. welcome
10. 	A. expect		B. alone		C. liquor		D. invite
PART II: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR. (8, 0 POINTS).
I. Choose the best answer to fill in each gap. Write your answer in the numbered box. (1, 5 point).
1. In the ___of security, personnel must wear their identity badges at all times.
A. requirement	B. interests		C. demands 	D. assistance
2. ___ how angry he was he would never resort to violence.
A. No matter		B. No problem		C. Although		D. Because
3. We played the game ___ the rules. 
	A. on account of	B. ahead of		C. according to	D. apart from
4. ___ to get through to Jackie for days now. Either she’s away or her phone’s out of order.
A. I’ve been trying	B. I had tried		C. I’m trying		D. I tried
5. This is ___ the most difficult job I have ever tackled. 
A. by rights		B. by all means		C. by far		D. by the way
6. She ___till the early hours listening to pop music.
A. took me up		B. kept me up		C. caught me up	D. held me up
7. Please don’t ___yourself out. A sandwich will do.
A. let			B. put			C. leave		D. take
8. Thechairman requested that ___
A. the members studied more carefully the problem. 	
B. the problem was more carefully studied.
C. with more carefulness the problem could be studied.	
D. the members study the problem more carefully.
9. Smoking is ___ in many companies in our country.
	A. permitted		B. taught		C. banned		D. stopped
10. After the battle, the ___ soldiers were helped by those who could walk.
	A. injured		B. wounded		C. broken		D. killed
11. I don’t think this strange new fashion will ………… 
	A. turn up		B. care for		C. show off		D. catch on
12. Their house is ___ near the Cathedral.
	A. whereabouts	B. anywhere		C. somewhere		D. any place
13. This young tree could not have been damaged by accident. I believe it was done ___
A. in fact		B. on purpose		C. by appointment	D. by plan
14. There was hardly ___ money left in my bank account.
	A. more		B. no			C. some		D. any
15. It is wrongly believed that natural resources will never be used ___.
	A. off 			B. out			C. away 		D. up
II. Give the correct tenses of the verbs in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (1,5 point)
1. If he __ (1. not drink) too much last night, he __ (2. not - be) tired now.
2. I’m sure he must ___ (3. be) at home last night because the door was open when I _ (4. come).
3. At this time next week, they _(5. sit) in the train on their way to Paris.
4. It’s raining. I would rather you ___ (6. close) the window.
5. I don’t know what’s the matter with him. He ___ funny since you __ (8. be)away.
6. On the first of next month, he __ (9. be) in prison for five years.
7. His personal problems seem __ (10. distract) him from his work lately.
8. He suggested that a final decision ___ (11. make).
9. I don’t know why you __ (12. always - make) noise in class, Tom.
10. __ (13. you/visit) many museums when you were in Paris?
11. The car looks very clean. ___ (14. you/wash) it?
12. My best friend, James, was no longer there. He ___ (15. go) away.
III. Put the correct form of the words in brackets. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points) AUTUMN COLORS
A new term is rapidly gaining recognition in the American language - a 'leaf peeper' is someone who, in autumn, is on the ___ (1. LOOK) for areas where the leaves of deciduous trees have changed colour. In New England, in the USA, 'leaf peeping' is big business, generating millions of dollars annually. The first report that leaves are changing colour sets off an ___ (2. INVADE) of 'peepers' thus causing serious obstruction on some roads. Thousands of  people log on to websites in their __ (3. EAGER) to find the location of the trees that have foliage in the most ___ (4. GLORY)colours. The popularity of 'leaf tourism' is well established in New England, and the changing colours of autumn provide an annual __ (5. TALK) point. The colours vary from year to year since the __ (6. INTENSE) of the colour is __(7. DEPEND) on the chemical composition of the dying leaves. After a long dry summer, leaves often turn bright red, while cloudy autumn days will produce less spectacular yellows. If climate change leads to __ (8. INCREASE) hot, dry summers in the northern hemisphere, then countries in Europe can expect summers not __ (9. LIKE) those across the Atlantic. They will then enjoy a kaleidoscope of ___ (10. SEASON)colour to rival the deep reds and blazing oranges seen in New England.
IV. Find out and correct the mistake in each sentence. Write your answer in the box.(2,0 points)
Example: Thirty hours a week are a heavy work schedule. 
1. A persimmon tastes best when it is such ripe that it looks wrinkled and almost spoiled.
2. American pioneers did water systems from logs with holes bored through theircenters.
3. The pituitary gland is a small endocrine gland at the base of the brain that releases many hormones and regulates another endocrine glands. 
4. In America, the Indians used crude oil for fuel and medicine hundreds of years before the first white settlers arrive.
5. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people stopped attending movies. 
6. Musical comedies, as an American form of entertainment, often take its subjects from America’s present or past.
7. Of all seashore plants, seaweeds are best able to tolerate long periods out of water, followed bylong periods coveringby water. 
8. The fruit of the plantain looks much like a banana, and it is not so sweet or so pleasing in flavor.
9. The viceroy butterfly, an insect that birds like to eat, has a color pattern similar to that of the monarch butterfly, whom birds do not like to eat. 
10. Behavior therapy uses rewards and punishments to encourage patients to act in a way healthier.
V. Complete these sentences with proper prepositions or adverbs. Write your answers in the numbered box.
1. Don't use pencils. Please write the letter ____________ ink. 
2. My father made ______________ his mind to settle in the South.
3. Minh couldn’t start his motor engine. I think it ran __________fuel.
4. Time is off now. Please hand ______________ your papers.
5. We invited 40 people to the party but only 23 turned __________
6. That fish of yours has been in the fridge for weeks. It must have gone _by now.
7. He needed a model, someone to look _____________ _ 
8. Uncle Tom is an idiot, but I only have to put ____________ him once a year.
9. I don’t like to make friends with the person who always runs ____________ his old friends.
10. These two men’s farms are adjacent ___________ each other.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION. (6,0 POINTS)
I. Read the passage below and decide which answer (A, B, C or D) best fits each gap. 
It is now extremely popular to take a gap year between school and university or university and work and to spend it traveling. There are plenty of reasons to recommend it - travel broadens the mind, you’re (1) ___________young once, life isn’t a rehearsal and so on. And if you don’t do it, you may always regret that you didn’t take the (2) __________In the end, there’s only one response: well, why not?
The idea may have its roots in the 18th century Grand tour once (3) ____________ by the young, rich and noble, but it is the middle classes who have turned it (4) __________ something that 200,000 British youngsters do every year. (5) ____________ has never been so easy and cheap, with more places open to tourists than ever. Also, the gap year is now (6) ____________ by many employers and universities.
The States, the Far East and Australia were among the original (7) _________ _and although these remain in the top five, young explorers are now going even further. The most far-flung corners of the world are (8) ____________ in popularity year by year. About $700 will buy a student ticket (9) ___________ for six months that will take you from London to Calcutta, Singapore, Bangkok, Perth, Sydney, Auckland, Fiji, Tahiti, Los Angeles and (10) ____________ again.
	1. A. merely
	B. only
	C. slightly
	D. simply
	2. A. occasion
	B. moment
	C. chance
	D. luck
	3. A. undertaken
	B. gone 
	C. done
	D. given
	4. A. up
	B. out
	C. over
	D. into
	5. A. Voyage
	B. Travel
	C. Excursion
	D. Tour
	6. A. received
	B. stood
	C. accepted
	D. admitted
	7. A. destinations
	B. endings
	C. landings
	D. terminals
	8. A. spreading
	B. expanding
	C. enlarging
	D. growing
	9. A. genuine
	B. valid
	C. effective
	D. legal
	10. A. now 
	B. here
	C. back
	D. then
II. Read the passage and fill in each blank with ONE suitable word. Write your answer in the numbered box.(2,0 	Ginseng is one of the great mysteries of the east. Often referred to as the “elixir of life”, its widespread use in oriental medicine has led to many myths and legends building up around this remarkable plant. Ginseng has featured (1) _ __ an active ingredient in oriental medical literature for over 5,000 years. Its beneficial effects were, at one time, (2) __ widely recognized and praised that the root was said to be worth its weightin gold.
	(3) _the long history of ginseng, no one fully knows how it works. The active part of the _ (4) is the root. Its full name is Panax Ginseng – the word Panax, (5) _the word panacea, coming from the Greek for “all healing”. There is growing interest by western scientists in the study of ginseng. It is today believed that this remarkable plant may (6) ___ beneficial effects in the treatment of many diseases which are difficult to treat with synthetic drug.
	Today, ginseng is (7) __ longer a myth or a legend. Throughout the world it is becoming widely recognized that this ancient herb holds the answer to relieving the stresses and ailments of modern living. It is widely used for the treatment of various ailments (8) __ as arthritis, diabetes, insomnia, hepatitis and anemia. However, the truth behind (9) __ ginseng works still remains a mystery. Yet its widespread effectiveness shows that the remarkable properties are (10) ___ than just a legend.
III. Read the passage, then choose the correct options. Write your answer in the box. (2,0 points)
One of the 7 wonders of the ancient world, the great pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheop in 1720 BC. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of this construction makes it truly one of the truly great wonders of the world. The thirteen – acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are a number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber for the pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The 4 sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west – an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshipers and great astronomers, so computations for the great pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
	Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers, and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate with its extraterrestrial being of the ancient past. 
 Was it superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today.
1. What has research of the base reveal? 
A. There are racks in the foundation.		
B. Tomb robbers have stolen pharaoh’s body.
C. The lines represent important events.	
D. A superior race of people built it.
2. Extraterrestrial beings are ____
A. very strong workers.			B. astronomers in the ancient times.
C. researchers in Egyptology.			D. living beings from other planets.
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly.		
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night.
C. To enable the pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife.
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh.
4. The word “intersecting” in line 9 is nearest in meaning to ____
A. crossing		B. coming		C. observing		D. cutting
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architect’s plans for the hidden passage.	B. Pathways of the great solar body.
C. Astrological computation.	D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time.
6. The word “prophesied” in line 12 is closest in meaning to ____
A. said			B. armed		C. terminated		D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great pyramid.	 
B. Problems with the construction of great pyramid.
C. Wonders of the Great pyramid of Giza. 
D. Exploration of the burial chamber of Cheop.
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians based their calculation?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies.	B. Advanced technology.
C. Advanced tools of measurements.		D. Knowledge of the earth’s surface.
9. Why was the Great pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory.			B. As a religious temple.
C. As a tomb for the pharaoh.			D. As an engineering feat.
10. Why is the Great pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. It is perfectly aligned with the 4 cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies.
B. It was selected as the tomb of the pharaoh Cheop. 
C. It was built a super race.	
 D. It is very old.	
PART IV: WRITING. (5,0 POINTS)
I. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meaning, using the cue given. (1,0 point)
1. We couldn’t have managed without my father’s money.
 If it hadn’t ..............................................................................................................................
2. House prices have risen dramatically this year.
 There has .... ........................................................................................................................
3. The only thing they didn’t steal was the television.
 They stole ........ ...................................................................................................................
4. He didn’t succeeded in searching for the stolen car.
 He tried in vain ...... ............................................................................................................
5. She started to clean up the house just after the guests had left.
 No sooner ..... ........................................................................................................................
6. The boy was about to cry when he was reprimanded by his mother.
→ The boy was on ..... .................................................................................................................
7. People believe that the Chinese invented paper in 105 A.D. 
→ Paper....... ..................................................................................................................................
8. As people use a lot of wood-pulp, many trees are cut down.
→ The more ........ .........................................................................................................................
9. It takes six hours to drive from here to London.
→ It is ........ .....................................................................................................................................
10. He got so angry that no one dared to say anything. 	
→ So ... .................................................................................................................................................
II. Rewrite each of the sentences without changing its meanings, using the word given. (1,0 point)
1. If you want to see me, come here by six a.m. 				(PROVIDED)
..........................................................................................................................................................................................................
2. He won’t let anyone touch his records. 					(OBJECTS)
..........................................................................................................................................................................................................
3. He didn’t think much of the musical show yesterday. 			(OPINION)
..........................................................................................................................................................................................................
4. The concert was not as good as he had hoped. 				(EXPECTATIONS)
..........................................................................................................................................................................................................
5. We missed the beginning of the concert because we had overslept. 	(CONSEQUENCE)
..........................................................................................................................................................................................................III.Write an essay (3, 0 points).
Face book dominates the free-time for too many people especially the students. It can have negative effect on their study and the physical development. 
Do you agree or disagree? Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion. 
Write an essay (250 - 300 words) to express your opinion.(3, 0 points).
Keys – practice 12
PART I: 
	1A
	2D
	3A
	4A
	5B
	6C
	7A
	8B
	9D
	10C
PART II: 
I
	1B
	2A
	3C
	4A
	5C
	6B
	7A
	8D
	9C
	10B
	11D
	12C
	13B
	14D
	15D
	
	
	
	
	
II. 
	1. had not drunk/wouldn’t fell
	2. have been/came
	3. will be sitting
	4. closed
	5. has acted/been acting/were
	6. will have been
	7. to have been distracting
	8. (should) be made
	9. are always making
	10.did you visit
	11. have you washed
	12. had gone
III. 
	1. outlook
	2. invasion
	3. eagerness
	4. glorious
	5. talking
	6.intensitive
	7. dependent
	8. increasingly
	9. unlike
	10. seasonal
IV. 
	1. B - so
	2. A - made
	3. D - other
	4. D - arrived
	5. C - /
	6. C - their
	7. D - covered
	8. B - but
	9. D - which
	10. D – healthier way
V. 
	1. in
	2. up
	3. out of
	4. in
	5.up
	6. off
	7. up/up to
	8. up with
	9. down
	10. to
PART III:
I. 
	1B
	2C
	3A
	4D
	5B
	6C
	7A
	8B
	9B
	10C
II
	1C
	2D
	3D
	4A
	5D
	6D
	7C
	8A
	9C
	10A
II
	1C
	2D
	3D
	4A
	5D
	6D
	7C
	8A
	9C
	10A
PART IV: 
I. 
	1. If it hadn’t ......been for my father’s money, we could not have managed.....
	2. There has ....been a dramatic rise/increase in the house prices this year.
	3. They stole ........everything except for/but/apart from the television...
	4. He tried in vain ......to search for the stolen car.
	5. No sooner .......had the guests left than she started to clean up the house.
	6. The boy was on .......the point of crying when he was reprimanded by his mother.
	7. Paper.......is believed to have been invented by the Chinese in 105 A.D.
	8. The more ........wood-pulp is used, the more trees are cut down..........
	9. It is ........a six-hour-drive from here to London.
	10. So ......angry did he get that no one dared to say anything.
II. 
	1. Provided (that) you want to see me, come here by 6 a.m
	2. He objects to anyone (else) touching his records
	3. He had a low opinion of the musical show yesterday
	4. The concert failed to come/live up to his expectations/The concert didn’t come/live up to 
	5. We missed the beginning of the concert as a consequence of (our) oversleeping/We had overslept. As a consequence, we missed the beginning
ENGLISH PRACTICE 13
A. PHONETICS 
Choose the word whose main stress pattern is different from the rest in each of the following questions
1. 	A. career		B. schoolgirl			C. machine		D. request
2. 	A. deposit		B. complexion			C. difference		D. decision
3.	A. tuition		B. symbolize			C. etiquette		D. interest
4.	A. semester		B. acceptance			C. procedure		D. institute
5.	A. industry		B. comprehend		C . confident		D. socialize
B. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (20 pts)
I. Choose the best option to complete each of the following sentences.
1. To meet this __________, we have brought 3 ships into regular operation.
A. demand		B. success			C. appeal		D. situation 
2. I can’t remember his name, but it’s on the tip of my _______________.
A. tongue		B. mouth			C. figure		D. head
3. The discovery was a major ______________for research workers.
A. breakthrough	B. breakdown			C. breakout		D. breakup
4. This is not the right ___________to ask for my help; I’m far too busy even to listen.
A. moment		B. situation			C. opportunity		D. circumstance
5. He drives so quickly that I am afraid that one day he wll___________someone crossing the road.
A. crash down	B. knock down				C. turn over		D. run across
6. When the electricity failed, he ____________a match to find the candles.
A. rubbed		B. struck 			C. scratched		D. started
7. The safety committee’s report recommend that all the medicine should be kept out of the ________of children.
A. reach		B. grasp			C. hand		D. hold
8. I __________part in the last competition if I__________younger.
A. would have taken/would be			B. would take/were
C. would have taken/would have been		D. would have taken/ were
9. It was desirable that we ____________at dawn.
A. started		B. had started 			C. start			D. would start
10. Thousand dollars ____________wasted by him in the casino.
A. was			B. were			C. are 			D. has
11. I’m going to stay here for___________few days.
A. another		B. other			C. others		D. the other
12. “Can’t you read?” Mary said, _____________
A. and angrily pointing to the notice.			B. pointing angrily to the notice.
C. angrily pointed to the notice.			D. and pointed angrily the notice
13. There has to be this starting and stopping movement __________the eye can only see only when it is not moving.
A. because		B. although			C. when		D. while
14. “________to Japan?” – “Yes, I _________there the year when there was an earthquake.”
A. Were you ever/was				B. Have you ever been/ have been
C. Were you ever/have been			D. Have you ever been /was
15. When the tenants failed to pay their bill, the authorities decided to cut ________the gas supply to the flat.
A. down		B. out				C. across		D. off
II. Some of the lines in the passage are correct, and some have a word that needs correction. If a line is correct, put a tick (). If a line has a word that needs correction, write the word and its correction. There are two examples at the beginning ( 0 and 00).
		Women are experts at gossiping, and they always talk about trivial things, or at least that’s which men have been always thought. However, some new research suggests that when women talk to women, whose conversations are far from frivolous, and cover many more topics (up to 40 subjects) than when men talk to other men. Women’s conversations ranged from health to their houses, from politics to fashion, from films to family, from education to relationship problems. Football is notable absent. Men tend to have a more limited range of subjects, the most popular being work, sport, jokes, cars, and women.
According to Professor Petra Boynton, a psychology at University College London, which interviewed over 1000 women, women also tend to move quickly from one subject to another in conversation, whereas men usually stick about one subject for longer periods of time.
At work, this difference can be an advantage for men, where they can put another matters aside and concentrate fully on the topic being discussed. In the other hand, it also means that they sometimes find it hard to concentrate when several things have to be discussed at the same time in a meeting. 
0. 
00. which=> what
	0. _____
00. ____
1.______
2.______
3.______
4.______
5.______
6.______
7.______
8.______
9.______
10._____
11._____
12._____
13._____
14._____
15._____
III. Supply the correct forms of the words in the CAPITAL letters
	 “Culture shock” describes the impact of ______(1) from a familiar culture to one which is ________( 2). It is an experience described by people who have traveled abroad to work, live or study; it can be felt to a certain extent even when abroad on holiday. It can ______(3) anyone, including _______(4) students. It includes the shock of a new environment, meeting lots of new people and learning the ways of a _______(5) country. It also includes the shock of being separated from the ______(6) people in your life, maybe family, friends, colleagues, teachers: people you would normally talk to at times of _____(7), people who give you support and guidance. When familiar ______(8) , sounds, smells or tastes are no longer there you can miss them very much. If you are tired and ______(9) when you arrive small things can be upsetting and out of all proportion to their real __________(10).
	MOVE
FAMILIAR
EFFECT
NATION
DIFFER
IMPORT
CERTAIN
SEE
JET-LAG
SIGNIFY
C. READING 
I. Read the text and think of the word that best fits each space. (ONE word for each space)
About 50 years ______(1) now, it is possible to use virtual reality to bring the_____(2) back to life, people will drag out_____(3) old and boring movies and choose a relative _____(4) bring back to life. The visual will be combined ______(5) records about that person to create a virtual relative.
Then the family can _____(6) a chat with that relative, _____(7) it running, and live with it. The experience will be_____(8) living with a ghost. People who died long ago will be resurrected,____(9) they can take on new _____(10). 
II. Read the passage and choose the best heading in the box for each paragraph. There are three extra ones that should not be used.
 (
How to maximize the SPF of sunscreens?
Summer sport and skin protection
How the various types of radiation differ?
Sunscreens: the higher the SPF the better?
What is ultraviolet radiation?
Other ways to protect yourself
What are the first signs of skin cancer?
A short break in the sun won’t hurt, will it?
)
1.___________
Sunshine contains three different bans of ultraviolet radiation: UVA, UVB and UVC. Although UVC is the most dangerous, because it is a shorter-wavelength radiation than UVA and UVB, it is screened out by the Earth’s ozone layer. UVA used to be thought less dangerous than UVB, but it is now known that both bands can cause skin cancer. It is UVB which causes sunburn. However, both UVA and UVB can age the skin prematurely.
2.___________
Levels of UV rays can vary. A two-week holiday in the Mediterranean will expose you to the same amount of sun as you would get in a year in Britain. Short periods of intense exposure to the sun are thought to be more risky than regular daily exposure, particularly if you have fairer skin. However, even if you have darker skin tones you will burn eventually. You can find out the daily UV rate by watching the solar UV index which has recently been introduced on national weather forecasts across Europe.
3.___________
The ideal sunscreen to use is an SPF15. This means a sunscreen which gives you fifteen times more protection that you would have normally. An SPF15 sunscreen will absorb proportionally equal amounts of UVA and UVB, and will give you good protection if you are sensible about your exposure. Sunscreens higher than SPF15 tend to lose their balanced effect: the chemicals in an SPF30, for example, will not block UVA rays as effectively as UVB. The other danger with high SPFs is that people will stay in the sun longer because they think are better protected. Higher SPFs do not give proportionately greater protection. An SPF15 gives 93 percent protection, for example, while an SPF34 gives 97 percent protection.
4.____________
Only UVA rays can pass through glass, so you won’t get sunburnt sitting by a window, while you can still enjoy the warmth of the sun. Be careful when sitting in the shade, however. You can still get burnt because you will be exposed to rays bouncing off reflective surfaces nearby. This is particularly the case near water. Not all clothing offers effective protection, either. If you can see the light through a piece of clothing when you hold it up, it will not offer much of a barrier to UV rays. 
5.____________
You should keep an eye out for any moles or dark spots on the skin that change in size, shape, or color, become bigger, itchy or inflamed, or bleed. All these may be symptoms of skin cancer and should be checked by a doctor. Once a mole has been identified as a potential melanoma, it is removed under local anaesthetic and sent for examination. Most turn out to be harmless. Of the three forms of skin cancer the two most common varieties – basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas are easily treatable and rarely fatal, and even melanomas can be treated effectively if caught in time. 
III. Read the following passages and choose the best answer to each question.
Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is Hyperactive. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective.
1. The topic of this passage is 
A. reactions to foods			B. food and nutrition
	C. infants and allergies		D. a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
A. the vast number of different foods we eat
B. lack of a proper treatment plan
C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
D. the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to
A. indications			B. diet			C. diagnosis		D. prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to
A. relieved			B. identified		C. avoided		D. triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
A. They can eat almost anything.
B. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
C. They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to 
A. overly active			B. unusually low activity
C. excited				D. inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's
A. lack of teeth			B. poor metabolism
C. underdeveloped intestinal tract	D. inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these" refers to
A. food additives			B. food colorings	
C. unnutritious foods			D. foods high in salicylates
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
A. Eating more ripe bananas	
B. Avoiding all Oriental foods
C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
D. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective
B. available in book form
C. beneficial for hyperactive children
D. designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives
D. WRITING 
I. Rewrite the following sentences, using key words in the parentheses or the suggested phrases given at the beginning of the sentences
1. Jack has become confident as a result of his success.	(turned)
Jack’s success______________________________person.
2. To find new fuels it is necessary to spend a lot of money.( means)
Finding_____________________________________money.
3. Dan promised sincerely that he wouldn’t watch so much TV. (sincere)
Dan________________________________________not to watch so muchTV.
4. Someone almost certainly broke the window on purpose. (must)
The window ________________________on purpose.
5. We were all surprised when she suddenly left the job. (found)
All__________________________________left the job.
6. The cost of living has gone up considerably in the last few years.
There________________________________________________
7. “No one can persuade me to sleep in that haunted house,” she said.
She flatly_____________________________________________.
8. If we can solve the problem soon, it will be better for all concerned.
The sooner____________________________________________.
9. We must continue our efforts, whether there are problems or not.
Regardless ___________________________________________.
10. “ Less noise!” the teacher told the boys.
The teacher shouted_______________.
II. The social networks such as Facebook or Twitter are very popular among teenagers. What are their advantages? Give examples and reasons to support your opinion. 
	Write a paragraph of about 200 words. 
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
........................................................................................................................................................................
Keys – practice 13
	Bài
	Câu
	Nội dung trình bày
	Điểm
	Phonetics
	1
	B
	0,1
	
	2
	C
	0,1
	
	3
	A
	0,1
	
	4
	D
	0,1
	
	5
	B
	0,1
	Grammar 1
	1
	A
	0,1
	
	2
	A
	0,1
	
	3
	A
	0,1
	
	4
	A
	0,1
	
	5
	B
	0,1
	
	6
	B
	0,1
	
	7
	A
	0,1
	
	8
	D
	0,1
	
	9
	C
	0,1
	
	10
	A
	0,1
	
	11
	A
	0,1
	
	12
	B
	0,1
	
	13
	A
	0,1
	
	14
	D
	0,1
	
	15
	D
	0,1
	Grammar 2
	1
	
	0,1
	
	2
	whose => their
	0,1
	
	3
	
	0,1
	
	4
	ranged => range
	0,1
	
	5
	
	0,1
	
	6
	notable => notably
	0,1
	
	7
	
	0,1
	
	8
	psychology => psychologist
	0,1
	
	9
	which => who
	0,1
	
	10
	
	0,1
	
	11
	about => to
	0,1
	
	12
	
	0,1
	
	13
	another => other
	0,1
	
	14
	In => On
	0,1
	
	15
	 
	0,1
	Grammar 3
	1
	movement
	0,1
	
	2
	unfamiliar
	0,1
	
	3
	affect
	0,1
	
	4
	international
	0,1
	
	5
	different
	0,1
	
	6
	important
	0,1
	
	7
	uncertainty
	0,1
	
	8
	sights
	0,1
	
	9
	jet-lagged
	0,1
	
	10
	significance
	0,1
	Reading 1
	1
	from	 
	0,1
	
	2
	dead
	0,1
	
	3
	their
	0,1
	
	4
	to
	0,1
	
	5
	with
	0,1
	
	6
	have
	0,1
	
	7
	keep
	0,1
	
	8
	like
	0,1
	
	9
	so
	0,1
	
	10
	roles
	0,1
	Reading 2
	1
	C
	
	
	2
	H
	
	
	3
	D
	
	
	4
	F
	
	
	5
	G
	
	Reading 3
	1
	A
	
	
	2
	C
	
	
	3
	A
	
	
	4
	D
	
	
	5
	B
	
	
	6
	A
	
	
	7
	C
	
	
	8
	D
	
	
	9
	D
	
	
	10
	A
	
	Writing 
	1
	Jack’s success has turned him into a confident person.
	0,15
	
	2
	Finding new fuels means spending a lot of money.
	0,15
	
	3
	Dan made a sincere promise not to watch so much TV.
	0,15
	
	4
	The window must have been broken on purpose.
	0,15
	
	5
	All of us found it surprising when she suddenly left the job.
	0,15
	
	6
	There has been a considerable rise/increase in the cost of living in the last few years.
	0,15
	
	7
	She flatly refused to sleep in that haunted house.
	0,15
	
	8
	The sooner we can solve the problem, the better it will be for all concerned.
	0,15
	
	9
	Regardless of whatever problems, we must continued our efforts.
	0,15
	
	10
	The teacher shouted to the boys to make less noise.
	0,15
ENGLISH PRACTICE 14
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. difficult	B. corporate	C. different	D. engineer
2. A. demolish	B. substantial	C. dramatic	D. terrorist
3. A. proficiency	B. electronic	C. petroleum	D. equivalent
4. A. vineyard	B. ignite	C. business	D. Finland
5. A. change	B. image	C. danger	D. oasis
6. A. reference	B. interview	C. government	D. understand
7. A. scholarship	B. develop	C. equipment	D. discourage
8. A. expectation	B. temperament	C. opportunity	D. decoration
9. A. religious	B. miserable	C. performance	D. including
10. A. decision	B. personal	C. interest	D. wonderful
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
21. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _________.
	A. though		B. although		C. as though		D. even though
22. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
	A. wasn’t concerned	B. wasn’t concerning	C. didn’t concern	D. didn’t concern to 
23. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
	A. no			B. almost no		C. hardly any		D. without
24. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
	A. missed		B. lost			C. failed		D. fell
25. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
	A. searched 		B. pursued 		C. wanted		D. hunted
26. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.
	A. live			B. raw			C. crude		D. rude
27. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
	A. Leaving uncovered				B. Having left uncovered	
C. Left uncovered				D. Been left uncovered
28. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
	A. cloud		B. tension		C. steam		D. sweat
29. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and possibly lead to a cure.
	A. earth		B. ground		C. soil			D. land
30. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
	A. games		B. jokes		C. tricks		D. fun
31. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
	A. lively		B. live			C. alive		D. living
32. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’ sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.
	A. could have told	B. told			C. have told		D. had told
33. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
	A. effect		B. force		C. influence		D. action
34. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the world.
	A. was flourished				B. having to flourish	
C. to have flourished				D. have flourished
35. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
	A. reflect		B. bear			C. give			D. possess
36. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
	A. what is needed	B. for our needs	C. the thing needed	D. that is needed 
37. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
	A. was posted		B. posted		C. be posted		D. be post
38. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
 	 Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
	A. I couldn’t agree more			B. I understand what you’re saying
	C. You’re wrong				D. I don’t see in that way
39. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
	A. reflecting		B. reflects		C. is reflecting		D. reflected
40. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
	A. a head		B. a mind		C. the heart		D. the nerve
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
	SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
	To ski or snowboardin Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state of Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire today's travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part of the US over a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife or a great family getaway, Colorado has everything you need.
	November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable, featuring Colorado's (5. LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming operations always keep trails in top shape.
	The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams into thrilling (6. REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7. PICTURE) ____ slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10. COMMIT) ____ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
11. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from freedom groups.
12. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
13. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
14. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the explosion.
15. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were ________the dole.
16. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
17. I can’t cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.
18. All the police’s efforts to find him were ________vain.
19. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
20. She’s gone and this time it’s ________good.
PART III: READING COMPREHENSION
I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS
	Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-days and is sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and bulk. What is not similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
	The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.
	While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth, the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher atmospheric temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
	However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A] Studies show that large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus Venus has become a critical study for today’s scientists, as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions. [D]
	Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-moving there can move large obstructions and even skip stones along the planet’s surface.
	In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the crushing air pressure.
Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the passage. 
8. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_________.
A. it is very bright 					B. it is close to the sun
	C. it can be seen from evening till morning		D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
9. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
	A. size			B. bulk				C. atmosphere		D. density
10. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph 3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential information.
	A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
	B. If a man could survive its surface pressure. 
	C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
	D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
11. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
	A. the small amounts of nitrogen			
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
	C. growing plants
	D. the high atmospheric temperatures
12. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
	A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
	B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
	C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
	D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
13. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be added to the passage.
	Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit? 
14. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
	A. generation		B. elimination		C. evaporation	D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer choices that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the summary is provided bellowed.
	Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.
	8. …………………………………………..…………………………………………..……
	9. ………………………………………………….…………………………………………
	10. ………………………………………………………………..…………………………
Answer Choices
G. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
H. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser and can even more large obstructions.
I. Spaceships landing on Venus, thoughoften crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
J. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great surface pressure.
K. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
L. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon dioxide will produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and the (2) ________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only two steps are needed to reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in Asia for many stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that peaceful time and space for their body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7) ________ this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa setting. Picturesque environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments bring the desired result. The Asian spa resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their professional services as (9) ________ as for the decor of their large treatment rooms. Visitors relax with Thai music and soak in the warm tones of the room. As all these take (10) ________ in individual rooms, precious privacy is guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas where guests share rooms or changing areas.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they had experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5- billion-worth of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind. It’s one part of the weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain but it plays a vital role in people’s lives across the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite (3)__________ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and links between particular winds and psychological problems (4)__________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot dry wind that slides off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures quite suddenly by 10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its (5)__________, making them feel anxious, irritable and generally ill. In California, many people (6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which rushes down from the high Mojave desert. Lyall Watson, in his book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when the Santa Ana blows, murder rates soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes, but for the (7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants take (8)__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (99)__________ on it to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10)__________ a lift at altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
11. A. made		B. caused		C. destroyed		D. completed
12. A. reminders		B. recollections	C. mementos		D. memorial		
13. A. easily		B. rightly		C. surely		D. simply
14. A. last			B. originate		C. pass			D. date
15. A. line			B. road			C. path			D. bypass
16. A. despair		B. respect		C. dread		D. warn
17. A. most		B. maximum		C. majority		D. general
18. A. benefit		B. chance		C. occasion		D. advantage
19. A. need		B. trust 		C. hope		D. realize
20. A. traveling		B. hitching		C. borrowing		D. making
PART IV: WRITING 
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be changed in any way.
11. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
	I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.
12. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
	The rain was ______________________________________________________________
13. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
	You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book. 
14. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE) 
	 This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.
15. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
	 It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
16. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
	The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.
17. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
	Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
18. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED
 My father ______________________________________________ another foreign language.
19. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard ________________________________________________________________________
20. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On___________________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words. 
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Keys – practice 14
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. difficult	B. corporate	C. different	D. engineer
2. A. demolish	B. substantial	C. dramatic	D. terrorist
3. A. proficiency	B. electronic	C. petroleum	D. equivalent
4. A. vineyard	B. ignite	C. business	D. Finland
5. A. changeB. image	C. danger	D. oasis
6. A. reference	B. interview	C. government	D. understand
7. A. scholarship	B. develop	C. equipment	D. discourage
8. A. expectation	B. temperament	C. opportunity	D. decoration
9. A. religious	B. miserable	C. performance	D. including
10. A. decision	B. personal	C. interest	D. wonderful
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
	1.A
	2. C
	3. D
	4. B
	5. C
	6. B
	7. B
	8. C
	9. B
	10. C
	11. B
	12. D
	13. A
	14. C
	15. B
	16. D
	17. C
	18. B
	19. A
	20. A
II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
	1. breathtaking
	2. settlers
	3. lifetime	
	4. consistent 
	5. legendary 
	6. reality	
	7. picturesque	
	8. unparalleled 
	9. caring
	10. committed 
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank. (5pts)
	1. in
	2. under
	3. to 
	4. out
	5. on
	6. out
	7. at
	8. in
	9. off
	10. for
PART IV. READING (30POINTS)
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
	1. A
	2. C
	3. D
	4. B
	5. A
	6. B
	7. A
	8. A
	9. C.
	10. F
In any order from question 8 to 10 
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts) 
	1. edge
	2. sound
	3. by
	4. with
	5. but
	6. least
	7. satisfy/meet
	8. together/along
	9. well
	10. place
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
	1. B
	2. A
	3. D
	4. D
	5. C
	6.C
	7. A
	8. D
	9. D
	10. B
PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5 pts)
11. I wish I had ability to speak French.
12. The rain was coming down in torrents. 
13. You should have asked me/ for permission….
14. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
15. It’s difficult for my sister to put up with commuting every day.
16. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean. 
17. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
18. My father talked me into learning another language.
19. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking.
20. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words. 
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
ENGLISH PRACTICE 15
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the rest
1. A. vulnerable	B. conservation	C. generation 	D. disappearance
2. A. encounter	B. influence	C. agency	D. memory
3. A. crossbar	=B. advance	C. goalie	D. Polo
4. A. succeed	B. anxious	C. well-done	D. reduce 
5. A. studious	B. semester	C. similar	D. century
6. A. teacher	B. brochure	C. achieve	D. purchase
7. A. departure	B. inherit	C. elegant	D. authentic
8. A. satisfy	B. quality	C. mistake	D. Sequential
9. A. repetition	B. television	C. residential 	D. mountaineer
10. A. communication 	B. international	C. university	D. necessarily
PART II: LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Millie’s father accused her of _________.
A. trying not hard enough			B. trying not hard enough
C. not trying hard enough			D. trying not enough hard
2. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening		B. is open		C. is opened		D. is being opened
3. I bought some new shoes. They felt a bit strange _________ because I wasn’t used to them.
	A. first			B. at first		C. firstly		D. first of all
4. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way ticket home.
	A. little 		B. a little		C. the little		D. a little of
5. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
	A. put down to 	B. catch up on		C. get down to 	D. do away with
6. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.
	A. if			B. in case		C. unless		D. supposing
7. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
	A. sets			B. leaves		C. spares		D. lets
8. For the past few months she’s been as a street _________ selling fruit and vegetable.
	A. dealer		B. trader		C. pusher		D. vendor
9. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.
	A. get rid of		B. get out of		C. get away with	D. get in the way with
10. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will _________ him from jail.
	A. release		B. relieve		C. remove		D. rehabilitate
11. The defendant’s lawyer wasn’t very good and he was found _________ by the jury.
	A. faulty		B. mistaken		C. guilty		D. sinful
12. The dish was so tasty that I asked for second _________.
	A. helping		B. portion		C. ration		D. share
13. I’m amazed that this game ever _________- it is so silly!
	A. took in 		B. caught on		C. took up		D. caught by
14. “I’m sure the Whitleys were involved.” - “They _________ have since they know nothing about the business.”
	A. can’t		B. wouldn’t		C. shouldn’t		D. mustn’t
15. “Candy’s an excellent pianist, isn’t she?” – “She _________ to win the prize if she plays this well during the competition.”
	A. is due		B. is bound		C. is about		D. is set
16. His friends offered to _________ the next time he was in town so that he wouldn’t have to pay for a hotel.
	A. place him in 	B. put him up		C. back him up 	D. turn him out
17. Susan became so tired of city life that she decided to buy a piece of land _________.
	A. out of the ordinary				B. as the crow flies	
C. far and away				D. in the middle of nowhere
18. My mind went ____ when the official asked me my phone number- I couldn’t remember it at all.
	A. empty		B. clear			C. blank		D. vacant
19. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
	A. unimportant	B. tiny			C. small		D. trivial
20. We do go _________ in the office, but the odd rule gets broken from time to time.
	A. by the book		B. for a song		C. astray		D. in phrases
II. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will give you the opportunity to try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is (1. BENEFIT) __________ in guiding you towards improving your interview style and general (2. PRESENT) _________ Just one mock interview will result in a (3. NOTICE)_________ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the same reason that a (4. SPEAK) _________ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper or floating in your head. It only exists when you give it (5. ORAL)_________ The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will come out nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say, ‘Yeah, I know the answer to that one.’ You need to practise your answer live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front of a mirror. Seek out a (6. PROFESSION) _________ and have the session videotaped. Then you will have two opinions – the interview’s and your own. You willfind you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________ when listening to yourself than when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always sounds different on tape, so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape and not in a potential employer’s mind. For maximum effect, you should (9. VISIT)________ your answers and go through a second mock interview. This should help with any (10. EASE)________ and give you more confidence for the real interview. 
III. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them. The first has been done for you.
	Most children with (0) health appetites are ready to eat almost anything that is offering them and a child rare dislikes food unless it is badly cooked. The way the meal is cooked and served is most important and an attractive served meal will often improve a child’s appetite. Never ask a child whether he likes and dislikes a food and never discuss them in front of him or allow nobody else to do so. If the father says he hates fat meat or the mother refuses vegetables under the child’s hearing he is likely to copy this procedure. Take it for grant that he likes everything and he probably will. Nothing healthful should be omitted out the meal because of a supposing dislike. At meal time, it is a good idea to give a child a small portion and let him come back for a second helping other than give him as much as he is likely to at all once. Do not talk too much to the child during the meal times. But let him get on with his food, and do not allow him to leave the table immediately after a meal or he will soon learn to swallow his food so that he can hurry back to his toys. Under no circumstance must a child be coaxed and forced to eat.
	(0) healthy
(1)_________
(2)_________
(3)_________
(4)_________
(5)_________
(6)_________
(7)_________
 (8)_________
(9)_________
(10)_________
PART III: READING
I. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
	The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that human tears are (1) _____ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (2) _____, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity. Because some people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (10) _____ “weepies”. It seems that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
1. A. witness		B. evidence		C. result		D. display
2. A. evolve		B. change		C. develop		D. alter
3. A. better		B. fine			C. good		D. well
4. A. contain		B. retain		C. hold			D. keep
5. A. construct		B. achieve		C. provide		D. produce
6. A. curing		B. treating		C. healing		D. improving
7. A. hint			B. symbol		C. feature		D. sign
8. A. release		B. rid			C. loosen		D. expel
9. A. consider 		B. remark		C. distinguish		D. regard
10. A. named		B. entitled		C. subtitled		D. called
II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
ITALY’S MOST POETIC CITY
Venice has been an inspiration for writers, artists and musicians throughout history. In the 15th century it was the world’s (1) _____ port. Since then it has built up an astonishing collection of art and architecture (2) _____ to its trade with the East.
The city (3) ____ its visitors incredible sights. Do not believe those who say Venice is a museum. This is still a living city full of joys. Venice looks good in any light. The sun makes the domes sparkle, but even on a grey, (4) _____ day the city can be extremely romantic.
And (5) _____ it gets overcrowded, (6) _____ is an easy escape to the other islands in the Venice Gulf, (7) _____ brightly-colored houses are a photographer’s dream.
In a curious way, Venice is a model city for the future; it is free from cars and the (8) _____ way to get around is by public transport or on foot. This one fact alone (9) _____ it a unique city, one (10) _____ traffic noise, the creation of genius indeed.
III. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
 	Legend has it that sometime toward the end of the Civil War (1861-1865) a government train carrying oxen traveling through the northern plains of eastern Wyoming was caught in a snowstorm and had to be abandoned. The driver returned the next spring to see what had become of his cargo. Instead of the skeletons he had expected to find, he saw his oxen, living, fat, and healthy. How had they survived?
The answer lay in a resource that unknowing Americans lands trampled underfoot in their haste to cross the “Great American Desert” to reach lands that sometimes proved barren. In the eastern parts of the United States, the preferred grass for forage was a cultivated plant. It grew well with enough rain, then when cut and stored it would cure and become nourishing hay for winter feed. But in the dry grazing lands of the West that familiar bluejoint grass was often killed by drought. To raise cattle out there seemed risky or even hopeless. 
Who could imagine a fairy-tale grass that required no rain and somehow made it possible for cattle to feed themselves all winter? But the surprising western wild grasses did just that. They had wonderfully convenient features that made them superior to the cultivated eastern grasses. Variously known as buffalo grass, grama grass, or mesquite grass, not only were they immune to drought; but they were actually preserved by the lack of summer and autumn rains. They were not juicy like the cultivated eastern grasses, but had short, hard stems. And they did not need to be cured in a barn, but dried right where they grew on the ground. When they dried in this way, they remained naturally sweet and nourishing through the winter. Cattle left outdoors to fend for themselves thrived on this hay. And the cattle themselves helped plant the fresh grass year after year for they trampled the natural seeds firmly into the soil to be watered by the melting snows of winter and the occasional rains of spring. The dry summer air cured them much as storing in a barn cured the cultivated grasses.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
 A. A type of wild vegetation B. Western migration after Civil War
 C. The raising of cattle D. The climate of the Western United States
2. What can be inferred by the phrase “Legend has it” in line 1?
 A. Most history book include the story of the train.
 B. The story of the train is similar to other ones from that time period.
 C. The driver of the train invented the story.
 D. The story of the train may not be completed factual.
3. The word “they” in line 4 refers to _____.
 A. plains	B.skeletons	C. oxen D. Americans
4. What can be inferred about the “Great American Desert” mentioned in line 7?
 A. Many had settled there by the 1860’s.
 B. It was not originally assumed to be a fertile area.
 C. It was a popular place to raise cattle before the Civil War.
 D. It was not discovered until the late 1800’s.
5. The word “barren” in paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to _____.
 A. lonely	B. uncomfortable C. infertile D. dangerous
6. The word “preferred” paragraph 2 is closed in meaning to _____.
 A. favored	B. available	 C. ordinary D. required
7. Which of the following can be inferred about the cultivated grass mentioned in the second paragraph?
 A. Cattle raised in the Western United States refused to eat it.
 B. It had to be imported into the United States.
 C. It would probably not grow in the western United States.
 D. It was difficult for cattle to digest.
8. Which of the following was NOT one of the names given to the western grasses?
 A. Mesquite grass	 B. Bluejoint grass	 C. Buffalo grass	D. Grama grass
9. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as a characteristic of western grasses?
 A. They contain little moisture	B. They have tough stems
 C. They can be grown indoors	D. They are not affected by dry weather
10. According to the passage, the cattle help promote the growth of the wild grass by_____.
 A. eating only small quantities of grass	
 B. continually moving from one grazing area to another
 C. naturally fertilizing the soil
 D. stepping on and pressing the seeds into the ground
PART IV: WRITING 
I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These words must not be changed in any way.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaints about it.
 Should ______________________________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
 I cancelled ___________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
 Never _______________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
 The more ____________________________________________________________________
5. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left ______________________________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.
He must _____________________________________________________________________
7. The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the avenue.
Not until _____________________________________________________________________
8. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her.
Helen’s boss criticized __________________________________________________________
9. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.
It ___________________________________________________________________________
10. Don’t misquote. I never said I hated ballet.
	Don’t put ____________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic: 
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
-----------------THE END-----------------
Keys – practice 15
PART A
1. A. vulnerable	B. conservation	C. generation D. disappearance
2. A. encounter	B. influence	C. agency	D. memory
3. A. crossbar	 B. advance		 	 C. goalie			 D. Polo
4. A. succeed	B. anxious	C. well-done	D. reduce 
5. A. studious	B. semester	C. similar	D. century
6. A. teacher	B. brochure	C. achieve	D. purchase
7. A. departure	B. inherit	C. elegant	D. authentic
8. A. satisfy	B. quality	C. mistake	D. Sequential
9. A. repetition	B. television	C. residential	D. mountaineer
10. A. communication 	B. international	C. university	D. necessarily
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer. 10pts)
	1. C
	2. B
	3. B
	4. C
	5. D
	6. B
	7. A
	8. D
	9. A
	10. A
	11. C
	12. A
	13. B
	14. A
	15. B
	16. B
	17. D
	18. C
	19. C
	20. A
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. (5pts)
	1. offering => offered
	2. attractive => attractively
	3. and => or
	4. nobody => anybody
	5. under =>in/with 
	6. grant => granted
	7. out => from
	8. supposing => supposed
	9. other => rather
	10. circumstance => circumstances
	
	
III. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letter. 
	1. beneficial
	2. presentation
	3. noticeable
	4. speech
	5. orally
	6. professional
	7. impression
	8. responses
	9. revisit
	10. unease
PART IV. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
	1. B
	2. C
	3. C
	4. A
	5. D
	6. C
	7. D
	8. B
	9. A
	10. D
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts) 
	1. largest/greatest
	2. thanks
	3. offers
	4. rainy/cloudy
	5. if
	6. there
	7. whose
	8. only
	9. makes
	10. without
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
	1. A
	2. B
	3. C
	4. D
	5. C
	6. A
	7. C
	8. B
	9. D
	10. B
PART V. WRITING 
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (5pts)
1. Should you have any complaints about the product, return it to the shop.
2. I cancelled my subscription to that magazine nine months ago.
3. Never had she expected she was so successful.
4. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
5. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
6. He must have recognized us at the airport.
7. Not until the journalist arrived at the airport did they hear the changes to the wedding plans.
8. Helen’s boss criticized her for not doing her work more carefully.
9. It has been suggested that the parking fees (should) be raised.
10. Don’t put words into my mouth. I never said I hated ballet.
II. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic: 
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 
4. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
5. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary andstructures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
6. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
ENGLISH PRACTICE 16
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. argument	B. reject	C. attract	D. install
2. A. librarian	B. religious	C. commercial	D. Japanese
3. A. technology	B. activity	C. experience	D. presentation
4. A. informality	B. entertainment	C. situation	D. appropriate
5. A. experience	B. cosmetics	C. economics	D. fertility
6. A. preparation 	B. apology	C. geography	D. experience
7. A. surplus 	B. surface	C. surgeon	D. surprise
8. A. award	B. control	C. regard	D. conquer
9. A. colleague	B. neighbour	C. career	D. classmate
10. A. disappear	B. precision	C. mechanic	D. discover
PART 2: LEXICO - GRAMMAR
Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
1. Much of what he said had little _______ to the issue we were discussing.
	A. accordance		B. involvement	C. concern			D. relevance
2. The restless lion kept pacing _________ along the front of its cage.
	A. back and fort	B. up and down	C. on and off		D. back and out
3. You can have _______ for the meals during your package vacation.
	A. vouchers		B. tags			C. checks		D. records
4. A new motorcycle model has just been _______ on the Internet.
	A. delivered		B. designed		C. launched		D. exploited
5. Why don’t you _______ a go? - It’s not difficult!
	A. do			B. have		C. set				D. make
6. The Prime Minister has _______ from the dogmatic position he adopted a few days ago.
	A. backed out		B. backed down	C. backed up		D. backed on
7. At the South Pole _______, the coldest and most desolate region on Earth.
	A. Antarctica lies where 			B. Antarctica lies and		
	C. where Antarctica lies 			D. lies Antarctica 
8. _______ in the diet is especially important for vegetarians.
	A. Enough protein is obtained 		B. Obtaining enough protein 
	C. They obtain enough protein 		D. By obtaining enough protein 
9. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity can be transmitted	B. That electricity transmitting
C. That electricity				D. That can be transmitted
10. Don’t leave paraffin heaters in a draught or where they’re _______
A. dangerously knocked over			B. in danger knocked over
C. in danger of being knocked over		D. in danger of knocking over
11. My father took _______ of the fine weather to a day’s work in his garden.
		A. chance		B. advantage		C. interest		D. charge
12. By 2050, medical technology _______ many diseases.
A. has conquered	B. will conquer	C. will have conquered	 	D. is conquering
13. I realized _______ that he was a thief.
A. sooner or later	B. all along		C. at the beginning	 D. eventually
14. _______ his assistance in those days, I would not be so successful now.
A. If it had not for				B. Had it not been for		
C. If there were not				D. Unless I had
15. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could ________.
A. see them off	B. see off them	C. see through them	 D. see them through
16. Janet will see you if you use the computer without permission. She has eyes like a _______.
	A. hawk		B. bird			C. goose		D. fox
17. My sister remained very calm. She _______.
	A. kept her temper	B. kept her soul	C. kept her head	D. lost her head
18. A network of railroads to unite the continent and encourage Western settlement _______ before the Civil War by Asa Whitney.	
A. when proposed	B. to propose		C. was proposed	D. a proposal
19. Farmers are at the _______ of the bad weather that can destroy their crop.
A. change		B. influence		C. force	 	 D. mercy
20. He showed his _______ for the TV programme by switching it off.
	A. distaste		B. discontent		C. annoyance		D. boredom
Section 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space at the same line.
OBSESSED WITH YOUR INBOX?
	 It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through face-to-face interaction and with counterparts and customers by phone or letter. But the world of communication has (1) ________ a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. Email, while (2) _______ a swift means of communication providing your server is fully (3) ________ and that the address you have contains no (4) _________ has had a (5) _______ effect on certain people's, both at home and in business. For these people, the use of email has become (6) _______ addictive to the extent that it is (7) ________ their mental and physical health. Addicts spend their day (8) ________ checking for email and have a (9) ________ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and receiving messages the equivalent to more than two working days a week. The negative effect on (10) ________ is something employers are well aware of.
	
 1. GO
 2. DOUBT
 3. FUNCTION
 4. ACCURATE
 5. SIGNIFY
 6. RESIST
 7. THREAD
 8. COMPULSION
 9. TEND
 10. PRODUCE
Section 3: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them
Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive support today, with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely different brain pathways which can operate at the same time with your appreciation of either being damaged. Researchers have founded that listening to car stereos does not create much interference when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not interfere to children’s homework. The affect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as how happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the design of places which people have to take in large amounts of information very quickly. They could, for example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits on aircraft.
	LINE
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	LINE
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	
	
	
	
	
	
Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition.
1. I have already told Tim that I won’t go to Spain with him, but he still trying to talk me _______.
2. _______ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.
3. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding _______ in his chair.
4. The applause died _______ after 5 minutes.
5. He accepted my advice _______ reservation.
6. Our students are orientated _______ the science subjects.
7. Cheques should be made _______ to Wellington.
8. I’m in no hurry. I’ll hang _______ here until you’re ready.
9. She is Polish _______ birth, but she has French nationality.
10. Your plan doesn’t allow _______ changes in the weather.
PART 3. READING
Section 1: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. 
How to win friends and influence colleagues
The worst sins that office workers can commit in the eyes of colleagues are interrupting people on the phone, talking loudly in front of someone’s desk and arriving late (1) _______ a meeting. It is almost (2) _______ bad to eat at your desk, make personal phone calls or leave coffee cups (3) _______ around, according to Bodytalk, a guide published by the Industrial Society, (4) _______ lists the 30 traits most likely to annoy colleagues. 
High on the list are signing on at someone else’s computer terminal (5) _______ signing off afterwards, messing up the photocopier by jamming the paper or leaving it set to produce multiple copies. Reading newspaper, doodling, chewing gum, keeping cuddly toys or ornaments on your desk, and putting up postcards or supposedly witty slogan (6) _______ invite disapproval. Also unpopular are (7) _______ who never fetch a colleague a drink from the machine, or who (8) _______ to hold the lift door open when others are approaching.(9) _______ conduct, according to the guide’s author, Judi James, not only gives you an unprofessional image but is downright anti-social and could result (10) _______ dismissal. 
Section 2: Fill the gaps in the passage by choosing the best phrases from A-M.
A few years ago one enlightened city decided to ease traffic congestion by (1) _______. People would just take a bike, ride it to where they were going and leave it (2) _______. The trouble was the citizens naturally found it (3) _______ to have their own free bicycle and (4) _______.
That slight detail of human nature apart, it was a good idea and (5) _______. The electric cars buzzing round the streets of La Rochelle in France are seen (6) _______ and, it is clamed, will make it easier (7) _______ within the city centre.
The idea is based on the belief that people like their own space, the freedom to drive a vehicle themselves (8) _______. It’s also based on the fact that cars in towns usually carry just one person. In effect, it’s (9) _______. At the moment, it’s a slightly utonpian view but the concept has grown (10) _______.
	A. to end the use of private cars
	H. supplying sufficient communal bicycles
	B. rather than crowd on to a bus or train
	I. taking the place of bicycles
	C. to encourage their use
	J. a sort of do-it-yourself taxi
	D. stock swiftly dwindled
	K. as a supplement to conventional cars
	E. out of a practical study
	L. instead of car
	F. for someone else to use
	M. it’s now the basic of a new scheme
	G. even more convenient
	
Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity, certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen- acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north, south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past, present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception. Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.
	Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known today?
1. What has research of the base revealed?
A. there are cracks in the foundation		B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events	D. A superior race of people built in
2. Extraterrestrial beings are _______.
A. very strong workers				B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology			D. living beings from other planets
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
4. The word “feat”in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.
A. accomplishment	B. Appendage		C. festivity		D. structure
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages		
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations			
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
6. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. affiliated		B. precipitated		C. terminated		D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid		B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza	D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
 A. Observation of the celestial bodies		B. Advanced technology
 C. Advanced tools of measurement		D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
9. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
 A. As a solar observatory				B. As a religious temple
 C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh			D. as an engineering feat
10. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
Section 4: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each numbered gap in the passage below. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
CARNIVOROUS PLANTS
All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil does not contain enough (1) _______ nutrients, some plants have adapted to (2) _______ their diets from another source: living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (3) _______ fascinating beings that “eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to survive. They are commonly found in marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of “traps” to ensnare prey, which they consume to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more (4) _______ than others.
The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps are easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold together. Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (5) _______ to movement. When the plant’s prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the two lobes together, trapping the prey (6) _______ inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal (7) _______ speed: the time between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the prey struggles inside the trap, it only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tighten their (8) _______. The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only one other type of snap trap exists today, (9) _______ to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and differ only in a few ways. For instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the waterwheel lives (10) _______ simple invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.
	1. A. critical	B. vital	 C. crucial		D. indispensable
	2. A. modify	B. enlarge	 C. augment		D. supplement
	3. A. nonetheless	B. though	 C. contradictorily		D. yet
	4. A. prevalent	B. current	 C. domineering		D. prevailing
	5. A. vulnerable	B. liable	 C. prone		D. sensitive
	6. A. closely	B. securely	 C. irreplaceably		D. steadily
	7. A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to	 	D. on merits of
	8. A. fist	B. hold	 C. seizure		D. grip
	9. A. denoted	B. referred	 C. indicated		D. implicated
	10. A. off	B. onto	 C. though		D. with
PART E. WRITINGSection 1: Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but using the word given. The word must not be altered in any way.
1. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students.				TAKE
 ___________________________________________________.
2. John decided that an actor's life was not of him.					CUT
 ___________________________________________________.
3. The number of people out of work has been going down little by little.		GRADUAL
 ___________________________________________________.
4. I really want to see her again.							DYING
 ___________________________________________________.
5. What did his silence mean?								SIGNIFICANCE
 ___________________________________________________.
Section 2: Write an essay of around 250 words on the following topic.
	The idea of going overseas for university study is an exciting prospect for many people. But while it may offer some advantages, it is probably better to stay home because of the difficulties a student inevitably encounters living and studying in a different culture. 
	To what extent do you agree or disagree this statement?
	Give reasons for your answer.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
_________The end_________
Keys – practice 16
PART I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. argument	B. reject	C. attract	D. install
2. A. librarian	B. religious	C. commercial	D. Japanese
3. A. technology	B. activity	C. experience	D. presentation
4. A. informality	B. entertainment	C. situation	D. appropriate
5. A. experience	B. cosmetics	C. economics	D. fertility
6. A. preparation 	B. apology	C. geography	D. experience
7. A. surplus 	B. surface	C. surgeon	D. surprise
8. A. award	B. control	C. regard	D. conquer
9. A. colleague	B. neighbour	C. career	D. classmate
10. A. disappear	B. precision	C. mechanic	D. discover
PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR - 25 pts
 
Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences (10 pts; 1pt/item)
	1. D
	5. B
	9. A
	13. B
	17. C
	2. A
	6. A
	10. C
	14. B
	18. C
	3. A
	7. D
	11. B
	15. C
	19. D
	4. C
	8. B
	12. C
	16. A
	20. A
Section 2: Word formation (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
	1. undergone
	2. undoubtedly
	3. functional
	4. inaccuracies
	5. significant
	6. irresistibly
	7. threatening
	8. compulsively
	9. tendency
	10. production
Section 3: Identify the 10 mistakes in the following sentences and correct them (5 pt; 0.5pt/item)
	LINE
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	LINE
	MISTAKE
	CORRECTION
	1
	tell
	say
	5
	affect
	effect
	2
	pay
	paying
	6
	outweigh
	outweighed
	3
	with
	without
	7
	for
	to
	4
	founded
	found
	7
	which
	where
	5
	to
	with
	8
	relevantly
	relevant
(Lưu ý: Tìm đúng từ nhưng sửa sai được 0,25pt)
Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition - 5 pts, 0,5pt/item
	1. round
	2. on
	3. off
	4. away
	5. without
	6. towards/ to
	7. out
	8. around
	9. by
	10. for
PART 3: READING - 30 pts
Section 1: (10 pt; 1pt/item) 
	1. for 
	2. as
	3. lying
	4. which
	5. without
	6. all
	7. those/people
	8. fail/forget
	9. Such
	10. in
Section 2: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)
	1. H
	2. F
	3. G
	4. D
	5. M
	6. K
	7. A
	8. B
	9. J
	10. E
Section 3: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item) 
	1. C
	2. D
	3. D
	4. A
	5. D
	6. D
	7. C
	8. A
	9. C
	10. A
Section 4: (10 pt; 1pt/item) 
	1. B
	2. D
	3. A
	4. A
	5. D
	6. B
	7. C
	8. D
	9. B
	10. A
PART 4: WRITING - 25 pts
Section 1: (5 pt; 1/item)
1. The students didn't take to their new lecturer.
2. John (decided that he) was not cut out to be an actor.
3. There has been a gradual decline (reduction/ fall/ decrease) in the number of people out of work.
4. Iam (I'm) dying to see her again.
5. What's (What was) the significance of his silence?
Section 2: Essay writing (20 pts)
	Total score: 2 points; assessed against the language level appropriate to that of a secondary student with four years of learning English in a gifted school in Vietnam.
	· Task achievement (5pts)
	· Grammar range and Accuracy (5 pts)
	· Coherence and cohesion (5 pts)
	· Lexical resource ( 0.5 pts)
ENGLISH PRACTICE 17
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. complain	B. gather	C. product	D. transcript
2. A. mosquito	B. elephant	C. dinosaur	D. buffalo
3. A. protect	B. settle	C. relate	D. compose
4. A. government	B. understand	C. interview	D. reference
5. A. scholarship	B. develop	C. equipment	D. discourage 
6. A. integral	B. terrific	C. cathedral	D. museum
7. A. appreciative	B. archeologist	C. architectural	D. cosmopolitan
8. A. photograph	B. separate	C. recommend	D. hurricane
9. A. tonight	B. control	C. purpose	D. involve
10. A. enough	B. aware	C. support	D. swallow
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1: Choose the best answer for each question.
1. My sister never allows ____ a party at home.
A. to have			B. me having		C. having had	D. having
2. She forgot _____ her toilet bag for her trip and she is now a little annoyed about it.
A. to be packing		B. having packed	C. packing		D. to pack
3. When I __________ how to ski for the first time, I felt so happy.
A. succeeded		B. began		C. studied		D. learned
4. Thailand defeated Laos ___2______3.
A. with/by			B. by/of		C. by/to		D. with/of
5. A number of political prisoners….. since Independent Day
A. have been released	B. have released	C. was released 	D. has been released
6. The street is very noisy,….makes sleeping difficult
A. which			B. what		C. that			D. it
7. There’s someone at the door. ………….. it
A. I am going to answer	B. I’m answering	C. I’ll answer		D. I answered
8. There are a lot of…. buildings in the centre of Sydney.
A. many-floored		B. multi-storey		C. multi-storied	D. many-story
9. It’s surprising how few people can… between margine and butter.
A. distinguish		B. seprate		C. disgnose		D. estimate
10. Rapid _______ would cause frequent floods and leave little water during dry seasons.
A. run-off 		B. run-in		C. run-out		D. run-over
11. You are _______ to clean the bathroom.
A. declared		B. imagined		C. supposed		D. spoken
12. They are passing new laws to ________ wildlife in the area.
A. conserve		B. protest		C. shield		D. shelter
13. They ________ a serious threat to security.
A. put			B. place		C. set			D. pose
14. _______ did he pay for his transitor radio?
A. How high		B. How many		C. How much		D. How often
15. More than half the staff ___________ temporary.
A. is			B. are			C. was			D. were
16. He reduced _________ and turned sharp left.
A. speed			B. rapidity		C. fast			D. rate
17. What’s taking an entrance exam ___________?
A. like			B. alike			C. likely		D. look like
18. The kids found it hard to stay ________.
A. unmoved		B. unmoving		C. still			D. stuck
19. _________ he became famous did he realize the price of fame.
A. Only until		B. Not until		C. Since		D. Until
20. He is _________ now so he can’t afford to buy a car.
A. out of job		B. out of order		C. out of work		D. out of employment
	1. 
	2. 
	3. 
	4. 
	5. 
	6. 
	7. 
	8. 
	9. 
	10. 
	11. 
	12. 
	13. 
	14. 
	15. 
	16. 
	17. 
	18. 
	19. 
	20. 
Exercise 2: Provide the correct article A/AN/THE/X (zero article) in the following gaps.
(21)________first few days after getting home from (22)______ college were okay but then I began to feel rather bored and lonely. My parents were busy working and (23)______most of my friends were either away on holiday or else had (24)________ holiday jobs. I tried to get a job myself but without success. Iwas beginning to wish I had not come home when I saw (25)_______advertisement for holiday courses in (26)________local newspaper. For (27)_______small fee you could try lots of different activities organized by (28)________ town’s youth club. Each activity lasted half (29)________ day and they were all exciting. I also met new people as many of (30)________ tourists staying in the town joined in. 
	21. 
	22. 
	23. 
	24. 
	25. 
	26. 
	27. 
	28. 
	29. 
	30. 
Exercise 3: Provide the correct form of the word in bold capitals.
	The World Health Organisation (WHO) is (31) WORRY that 1.1 billion teenagers and people in their twenties and early thirties are damaging their (32) HEAR by listening to loud music. It says (33) NEAR half the young people in middle and high-income countries risk hearing loss because of the "(34) SAFETY use" of personal music (35) PLAY, including smartphones. Loud music in nightclubs, bars and at sporting events also increases the risk. The WHO recommends a safe (36) LIMITED of listening to music for just one hour a day. The WHO director for (37) INJURE prevention, Dr Etienne Krug, told the BBC that: "What we're trying to do is raise (38) AWARE of an issue that is not (39) TALK about enough." He said hearing loss is easily (40) PREVENT. 
	21. 
	22. 
	23. 
	24. 
	25. 
	26. 
	27. 
	28. 
	29. 
	30. 
Exercise 4: Choose the incorrect parts and correct them.
31. Despite (A) fats and oil are nutritionally (B) important as (C) energy sources, medical research indicates that saturated fats may contribute to hardening (D) of the arteries.
32. The radio telescope, invented (A) in 1932, has capabilities (B) beyond far (C) those of optical telescopes in tracking (D) signals from galaxies.
33. The boat rose and fell slow (A) as (B) the huge sea swells (C) moved (D) towards shore.
34. She was determined (A) to pursue (B) a tertiary education however (C) happened to her (D). 
35. Today there is (A) an unusually (B) large amount (C) of students in the class (D). 
III. READING
Exercise 1: Questions 1 – 10 
Clinic for internet addicts opens in US
If you have to take a quick break from reading this article to send a text message or check your Blackberry, then the good news is that help is at hand.
A new centre for cyberspace addicts has opened in the US city of Seattle. It claims to be America’s first residential centre for people addicted to the internet and video games. For $14,000, six people at a time can spend 45 days fighting against their constant need to connect to the internet. Residents are given counselling and psychotherapy, as well as group activities such as household chores, walks in the grounds and exercising.
The centre, in the countryside about 50km outside Seattle, is the idea of therapist Hilarie Cash. She recorded her first case of cyberspace addiction in 1994, with a patient so glued to video games that he lost his marriage and two jobs. But until this summer she had only met patients on a day-by-day basis. Cash points out that although countries such as China, South Korea and Taiwan have places where internet addicts can find help, America has been slow to recognise the problem.
Ben Alexander, 19, was one of the centre’s first residents. He became addicted to the video game World of Warcraft, which took up most of his time awake. He started playing the game when he was a new student at Iowa University. “At first it was a couple of hours a day. By midway through the first semester, I was playing 16 or 17 hours a day,” he said.
By comparison to the whizz-bang on the screen in front of him, the social life at university seemed very boring. He came to see the game as an “easy way to socialise and meet people.” Alexander eventually left the university and found help with his gaming problem. “I don’t think I’ll go back to World of Warcraft any time soon,” he said.
Questions 1 – 6: Read the text and choose the correct answers to these questions.
1. The centre is for people who spend too much time ____________
A. at the office		B. on the phone 		C. online
2. The residents at the centre do activities ___________
A. in pairs			B. in small groups		C. in big groups
3. Cash’s first patient was addicted to _____________
A. video games		B. exercising			C. household chores
4. People have been slow to recognise the addiction in ___________
A. China			B. South Korea			C. the US
5. Ben began to have problems when he started ______________
A. at college		B. at the centre		C. at work
6. Ben found the game a good way to _____________
A. study			B. make friends		C. help his problem
Questions 7 – 12: Read the text and write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer to these questions.
7. Where is the new centre?
8. How much does the course cost?
9. How long is the course?
10. When did Cash have her fist addicted patient?
11. What internet game did Ben play?
12. How many hours a day did Ben play the game?
	1. 
	2. 
	3. 
	4. 
	5. 
	6. 
	7. 
	8. 
	9. 
	10. 
	11. 
	12. 
Exercise 2: Questions 13 – 20 
Read the text and fill in each blank with a most suitable word.
School students do not shower after sports class
A report has found that more than half of high (13)__________ boys and two-thirds of girls never shower after a physical (14)__________ class. Researchers suggest that students don't want to sweat and take a (15)__________ , so they are less active in sports classes. The researchers questioned almost 4,000 children in schools in Essex, England. Lead researcher Dr Gavin Sandercock said he was surprised (16)__________ how rarely students showered. He said: "We know (17)__________ children aren't getting (18)__________ physical activity because we have seen their fitness declining; (19)__________ the unwillingness to shower is a barrier to working up a sweat (20)__________ playing sport, it's something we need to tackle to promote activity at schools."
	13. 
	14. 
	15. 
	16. 
	17. 
	18. 
	19. 
	20. 
Exercise 3: Questions 21 – 30 
Read the text and choose the most suitable option to complete the text.
The Internet bus
In the desert areas that surround Tucson city, USA, students spend hundreds of hours on yellow buses each year getting to and from their schools. But when mobile internet equipment was (21)____________ on a yellow school bus, the bored, often noisy, teens were transformed into quiet, studious individuals.
District officials got the idea during (22)____________ drives on school business to Phoenix, two hours each way, when they (23)____________ that, when they went in pairs, one person could drive and the other could work using a laptop and a wireless card. They (24)____________ if internet access on a school bus could (25)____________ students’ academic productivity, too.
But the idea for what students call ‘the internet bus’ really took shape when the district’s chief information officer (26)____________ across an article about having internet across in cars. He thought, “What if you could put that in a bus?”
The officials have been delighted to see the (27)____________ of homework getting done, morning and evening, as the internet bus (28)____________ up and drops off students along the 70-minute drive. (29)____________ some students spend their time playing games or visiting social networking sites, most students do make (30)____________ their travel time to study.
21. A. installed			B. set			C. included		D. structured
22. A. extraordinary		B. occasional		C. exceptional		D. few
23. A. believed			B. acknowledged	C. estimated		D. realised
24. A. thought			B. imagined		C. suspected		D. wondered
25. A. increase			B. enlarge		C. rise			D. heighten
26. A. got			B. looked		C. came		D. put
27. A. total			B. amount		C. number		D. measure
28. A. brings			B. picks			C. rides			D. catches
29. A. Since			B. Despite		C. Although 		D. However
30. A. progress		B. work		C. use			D. part
	31. 
	32. 
	33. 
	34. 
	35. 
	36. 
	37. 
	38. 
	39. 
	40. 
IV. WRITING
Exercise 1: Complete the following sentences so that their meanings are close to the originals.
1. I can’tsay I enjoy it when people tear my writing to pieces in front of me.
· I can’t say I enjoy having …………………………………………..
2. We’ll have to make up our minds by the end of the week, won’t we?
· A decision will have to …………………………………………..
3. The job received over a hundred applications.
· Over a hundred people …………………………………………..
4. This story of yours isn’t true!
· You have made …………………………………………..
5. The best solution was thought of by Sally.
· Sally came …………………………………………..
Exercise 2: Write a PARAGRAPH of at least 120 words on the following topic: 
If you could study a subject that you have never had the opportunity to study, what would you choose? Explain your choice, using specific reasons and details.
Keys – practice 17
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. complain	B. gather	C. product	D. transcript
2. A. mosquito	B. elephant	C. dinosaur	D. buffalo
3. A. protect	B. settle	C. relate	D. compose
4. A. government	B. understand	C. interview	D. reference
5. A. scholarship	B. develop	C. equipment	D. discourage 
6. A. integral	B. terrific	C. cathedral	D. museum
7. A. appreciative	B. archeologist	C. architectural	D. cosmopolitan
8. A. photograph	B. separate	C. recommend	D. hurricane
9. A. tonight	B. control	C. purpose	D. involve
10. A. enough	B. aware	C. support	D. swallow
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR: Total: 3 pts
Exercise 1: (Total: 1 pts: 0.05pt/each correct answer) 
	1. D
	2. D
	3. D
	4. C
	5. A
	6. A
	7. C
	8. B
	9. A
	10. A
	11. C
	12. A
	13. D
	14. C
	15. B
	16. A
	17. A
	18. C
	19. B
	20. C
Exercise 2: (Total: 0.5 pts: 0.05pt/each correct answer) 
	21. The
	22. x
	23. x
	24. x
	25. an
	26. the
	27. a
	28. the
	29. a
	30. the
Exercise 3: (Total: 1 pts: 0.1pt/each correct answer) 
	31. worried
	32. hearing
	33. nearly
	34. unsafe
	35. players
	36. limit
	37. injury
	38. awareness
	39. talked
	40. preventable
Exercise 4: (Total: 0.5 pts: 0.05pt/each correct finding + 0.05pt/each correction) 
41. A => Although/ Though
42. C => far beyond
43. A => slowly
44. C => whatever
45. C => number
III. READING: Total: 3 pts (0.1pt/each correct answer)
Exercise 1:
	1. C
	2. B
	3. A
	4. C
	5. A
	6. B
	7. Seattle
	8. S14,000
	9. 45 days
	10. 1994
	11. World of Warcraft
	12. 16 or 17
Exercise 2:
	13. school
	14. education
	15. shower
	16. at
	17. that
	18. enough
	19. if
	20. or
Exercise 3:
	21. A
	22. B
	23. D
	24. D
	25. A
	26. C
	27. B
	28. B
	29. C
	30. C
IV. WRITING: Total: 2 pts 
Exercise 1: Total: 0.5 pts (0.1pt/each correct answer)
1. I can’t say I enjoy having my writing torn to pieces in front of me.
2. A decision will have to be made by the end of the week, won’t we?
3. Over a hundred people applied for the job.
4. You have made up this story!
5. Sally came up with the best solution.
Exercise 2: 1.5 pts
I. Hướng dẫn
· Chấm bài theo hướng dẫn chấm.
· Chi tiết hoá điểm số các ý (nếu có) phải đảm bảo không sai lệch với tổng điểm mỗi ý và được thống nhất trong hội đồng chấm thi.
· Không làm tròn điểm 
III. Hướng dẫn cụ thể
	Tiêu chí
	Mô tả chi tiết
	Điểm
	Nội dung
	Viết đúng chủ đề (chỉ cần viết đúng câu chủ đề)
Viết logic, hợp lí
	0,3
0,4
	Ngôn ngữ
	Đúng cấu trúc ngữ pháp
Sử dụng từ vựng phù hợp phong phú
	0,3
0,3
	Trình bày
	Viết đủ số từ theo qui định
Mạch lạc, rõ ràng, có ý sáng tạo
	0,1
0,1
	Tổng
	
	1.5
 
Cách tính lỗi: - 01 lỗi ngữ pháp (cấu trúc, từ vựng…) trừ 0,05
 - 01 lỗi chính tả trừ 0,01
 - Viết ít hơn số từ qui định trừ 0,2
	 - Viết nhiều hơn số từ qui định không trừ điểm
ENGLISH PRACTICE 18
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. period	B. consider	C. advocate	D. cultural
2. A. exclude	B. expire	C. expert	D. exceed
3. A. industrial	B. infallible	C. intimacy	D. intensity
4. A. engineering	B. comprehension	C. maturity	D. architectural
5. A. curriculum	B. grammatical	C. repetitious	D. historical
6. A. enough	B. aware	C. support	D. swallow
7. A. period	B. consider	C. advocate	D. cultural
8. A. exclude	B. expire	C. expert	D. exceed
9. A. industrial	B. infallible	C. intimacy	D. intensity
10. A. engineering	B. comprehension	C. maturity	D. architectural
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Exercise 1. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
21. Millie’s father accused her of _________.
A. trying not hard enough			B. not trying enough hard 
C. not trying hard enough			D. trying not enough hard
22. The public library _________ to all readers who are interested in reading and doing research.
A. is opening		B. is open		C. is opened		D. is being opened
23. I bought some new shoes. They felt a bit strange _________ because I wasn’t used to them.
	A. first			B. at first		C. firstly		D. first of all
24. I quickly packed my new belongings and spent _________ money I had on a one-way ticket home.
	A. little 		B. a little		C. the little		D. a little of
25. She believes that all countries should _________ the death penalty as it is inhumane.
	A. put down to 	B. catch up on	C. get down to 	D. do away with
26. Keep your ticket _________ you have to show it to an inspector.
	A. if			B. in case		C. unless		D. supposing
27. He always _________ aside some time every day to read to his children.
	A. sets			B. leaves		C. spares		D. lets
28. For the past few months she’s been working as a street _________ selling fruit and vegetable.
	A. dealer		B. trader		C. pusher		D. vendor
29. I use weed-killer to _________ the weeds in the garden.
	A. get rid of		B. get out of		C. get away with	D. get in the way with
30. If there is new evidence that proves his innocence, it is likely that the authorities will _________ him from jail.
	A. release		B. relieve		C. remove		D. rehabilitate
31. The defendant’s lawyer wasn’t very good and he was found _________ by the jury.
	A. faulty		B. mistaken		C. guilty		D. sinful
32. The dish was so tasty that I asked for a second _________.
	A. helping		B. portion		C. ration		D. share
33. I’m amazed that this game ever _________ - it is so silly!
	A. took in 		B. caught on		C. took up		D. caught by
34. - “I’m sure the Whitleys were involved.” 
- “They _________ have since they know nothing about the business.”
	A. can’t		B. wouldn’t		C. shouldn’t		D. mustn’t
35. “Candy’s an excellent pianist, isn’t she?” – “She _________ to win the prize if she plays this well during the competition.”
	A. is due		B. is bound		C. is about		D. is set
36. His friends offered to _________ the next time he was in town so that he wouldn’t have to pay for a hotel.
	A. place him in 	B. put him up		C. back him up 	D. turn him out
37. The doctor _______the cut on my knee and said it had completely healed up.
A. examined 		B. investigated 	C. researched 		D. looked into
38. My mind went _________ when the official asked me my phone number – I couldn’t remember it at all.
	A. empty		B. clear			C. blank		D. vacant
39. During their first date, Jane had nervously peppered the conversation with _____talk.
	A. unimportant	B. tiny			C. small		D. trivial
40. You need a passport to cross the _________between Mexico and the United States.
A. edge			B. line			C. border		D. rim
Exercise 2. There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them like the example provided.
 Example: success (Line 1) → succeed
	It is very difficult to success in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first record fail to produce the second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires and intricate knowledge of how a record company is functioned. The process begins when a presenter of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A&R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands.After the representative identifies a promised band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signature of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time to investigate the band itself as well as current trends for popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocates with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making personnel connections within the different departments that will handle their recordings.
	Line 1
Line 2
Line 3
Line 4
Line 5
Line 6
Line 7
Line 8
Line 9
Line 10
Line 11
Line 12
Line 13
Line 14
	…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
…………………..
Exercise 3. Supply the correct FORM of the word in capital letters. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
Before going to an interview, it is advisable to go through a mock interview. This will give you the opportunity to try out your technique and answers live. It is also a chance to receive feedback that is (1. BENEFIT) __________ in guiding you towards improving your interview style and general (2. PRESENT) __________. Just one mock interview will result in a (3. NOTICE) ______ improvement in your interview skill. Why? For the same reason that a (4. SPEAK) _______ doesn’t exist while it is still on paper or floating in your head. It only exists when you give it (5. ORAL)_______. The first time you give it in front of an audience, it will come out nothing like the one you prepared.
It is the same with being interviewed. It is not enough to look at a question and say, ‘Yeah, I know the answer to that one.’ You need to practise your answer live; this is not the time to talk to yourself in front of a mirror. Seek out a (6. PROFESSION) _______ and have the session videotaped. Then you will have two opinions – the interview’s and your own. You will find you get a completely different (7. IMPRESS)________ when listening to yourself than when you are watching yourself saying something. Just as your voice always sounds different on tape, so do your (8. RESPOND) _______. You will be glad the image is captured on tape and not in a potential employer’s mind. For maximum effect, you should (9. VISIT)________ your answers and go through a second mock interview. This should help with any (10. EASE)________ and give you more confidence for the real interview. 
III. READING
Exercise 1. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
	The ability to weep is a uniquely human form of emotional response. Some scientists have suggested that human tears are (1) _____ of an aquatic past – but this does not seem very likely. We cry from the moment we enter this world, for a number of reasons. Helpless babies cry to persuade their parents that they are ill, hungry or uncomfortable. As they (2) _____, they will also cry just to attract parental attention and will often stop when they get it.
The idea that having a good cry do you (3) _____ is a very old one and now it has scientific validity since recent research into tears has shown that they (4) _____ a natural painkiller called enkaphalin. By fighting sorrow and pain this chemical helps you feel better. Weeping can increase the quantities of enkaphalin you (5) _____.
Unfortunately, in our society we impose restrictions upon this naturally (6) _____ activity. Because some people still regard it as a (7) _____ of weakness in men, boys in particular are admonished when they cry. This kind of repression can only increase stress, both emotionally and physically.
Tears of emotion also help the body (8) _____ itself of toxic chemical waste, for there is more protein in them than in tears resulting from cold winds or other irritants. Crying comforts, calms and can be very enjoyable – (9) _____ the popularity of highly emotional films which are commonly (10) _____ “weepies”. It seems that people enjoy crying together almost as much as laughing together.
11. A. witness		B. evidence		C. result		D. display
12. A. evolve		B. change		C. develop		D. alter
13. A. better		B. fine			C. good		D. well
14. A. contain		B. retain		C. hold			D. keep
15. A. construct		B. achieve		C. provide		D. produce
16. A. curing		B. treating		C. healing		D. improving
17. A. hint			B. symbol		C. feature		D. sign
18. A. release		B. rid			C. loosen		D. expel
19. A. consider 		B. remark		C. distinguish		D. regard
20. A. named		B. entitled		C. subtitled		D. called
Exercise 2. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet. 
Travel Insurance
	When going on holiday, it is always a good idea to take out travel insurance. This is just in case something goes (1) _____ along the way. You could lose your luggage, you could be robbed, or even become ill and need expensive medical treatment. For millions of holiday makers, travel insurance is just a precaution (2)_______ will help them have an enjoyable and worry-free holiday. But for (3)_____, travel insurance is a way of earning money (4) ______ making false claims against insurance companies. For (5) ______, some people pretend that they have had expensive equipment stolen which in (6) ______ never even existed, and then claim large sums in compensation. Such claims cost insurance company a total (7)_____ £50 million per year. But the cheats’ luck is about to run (8)_____. (9) ______ to a new computer system, companies will be able to tell at a glance (10) _____ someone has made a claim within the last three years. Honest travelers will no longer have to pay through the nose for other people’s dishonesty.
Exercise 3. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
	 The symptoms of hay fever include watery and itchy eyes and a runny, congested nose. People suffering from hay fever may experience occasional wheezing and repeated bouts of sneezing and may even lose their sense of smell. Some victims of hay fever may also have stopped-up ears. About 30 percent of those who suffer from hay fever may develop the symptoms associated with periodic asthma or a sinus infection. The allergen-antibody theory does not fully explain allergic reactions because the membranes and glands in eyes and ears are controlled by the independent nervous system, which keeps these organs in balance. But the independent nervous system itself is part of the emotional- response center and may cause the feelings of anger, fear, resentment, and lack of self-confidence in reaction to allergy-causing substances.
	The most common cause of hay fever is the pollen of ragweed, which blossoms during the summer and autumn. When airborne pollen particles, as well as mold, come into contact with the victim’s membranes, they can cause allergic reactions that release histamine and result in virtual blockage of air passages. To prevent hay fever or to decrease the severity of its symptoms, contact with the ragweed pollen should be reduced. Although some communities have attempted to eliminate the plants that cause the reactions, elimination programs have not been successful because airborne pollen can travel considerable distances. Antihistamine can help with short but severe attacks. Over extended periods of time, however, patients are prescribed a series of injections of the substance to which they are sensitive in order to increase immunity and thus be relieved of the seasonal allergy.
						(Resource: Toefl test strategies by Eli Hinkel, Ph.D)
1. It can be inferred from the passage that the phrase “hay fever” refers to________.
	A. fodder for cattle				B. a seasonal discomfort
	C. viral bacteria 				D. a lung disease
2. According to the passage, the symptoms of the allergy are predominantly________.A. abdominal		B. intestinal		C. respiratory		D. chronic
3. What can be inferred from the first paragraph?
A. Hay fever may cause severe allergic reactions and even death.
B. The cause of allergic reactions has not been determined.
C. The nervous system balances allergic reactions.
D. People should not have an emotional response to allergic reactions.
4. According to the passage, patients suffering from hay fever may also experience________. 
	A. hunger pains				B. mood swings 	
	C. nervous blockages 				D. sensory perceptions
5. The word “resentment” is closest in meaning to________. 
	A. reprieve		B. reprisal		C. irritation		D. grief
6. According to the passage, the irritants are transported by________. 
	A. wind			B. food			C. travelers		D. air passages
7. The word “blockage” in the passage is closest in meaning to________. 
	A. obstruction 		B. bleeding 		C. enlargement 	D. dryness
8. According to the passage, to avoid incidents of hay fever, patients need to________.
A. avoid interactions with other patients 	B. avoid exposure to pollen
C. increase their self-confidence		D. take doses of prescribed medicine.
9. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage as a cause of allergies?
	A. pollen		B. mold		C. flowers		D. injections
10. A paragraph following this passage would most probably discuss________. 
A. how the nervous system alerts patients. 
B. how the immune system reacts to allergens.
C. what other diseases can be relieved by vaccines.
D. what flowers are harmless to hay fever patients.
IV. WRITING 
Exercise 1. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning.
1. Return the product to the shop if you have any complaint about it.
 Should ______________________________________________________________________
2. It’s almost nine months since I stopped subscribing to that magazine.
 I cancelled ___________________________________________________________________
3. Her success went beyond her expectation.
 Never _______________________________________________________________________
4. His fondness for the game increased with his proficiency.
 The more ____________________________________________________________________
5. Simon hadn’t expected that he would feel so weak after the operation.
The operation left ______________________________________________________________
6. I am sure he recognized us at the airport.
He must _____________________________________________________________________
The journalists only heard about the changes to the wedding plans when they arrived at the avenue.
Not until _____________________________________________________________________
7. “Why can’t you do your work more carefully?” Helen’s boss said to her.
Helen’s boss criticized __________________________________________________________
8. Someone has suggested raising the parking fees in the city.
It ___________________________________________________________________________
9. That dress is a third of the cost of the blue one.
	The blue dress is three__________________________________________________________
Exercise 2. Write an essay (about 250 words) about the following topic: 
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………
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Keys – practice 18
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. period	B. consider	C. advocate	D. cultural
2. A. exclude	B. expire	C. expert	D. exceed
3. A. industrial	B. infallible	C. intimacy	D. intensity
4. A. engineering	B. comprehension	C. maturity	D. architectural
5. A. curriculum	B. grammatical	C. repetitious	D. historical
6. A. enough	B. aware	C. support	D. swallow
7. A. period	B. consider	C. advocate	D. cultural
8. A. exclude	B. expire	C. expert	D. exceed
9. A. industrial	B. infallible	C. intimacy	D. intensity
10. A. engineering	B. comprehension	C. maturity	D. architectural
II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
	1. C
	2. B
	3. B
	4. C
	5. D
	6. B
	7. A
	8. D
	9. A
	10. A
	11. C
	12. A
	13. B
	14. A
	15. B
	16. B
	17. A
	18. C
	19. C
	20. C
Exercise 2. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. (10pts: 0.5 pt/each correct finding + 0.5 pt/each correction)
	1. the second (Line 2)→ a second 
	6. signature (Line 8)→ signing
	2. and (intricate) (Line 4)→ an (intricate)
	7. to investigate (Line 10)→ investigating
	3. is functioned (Line 4)→ functions
	8. for (Line 10)→ in
	4. presenter (Line 5)→ representative
	9. reciprocates (Line 11)→ reciprocate
	5. promised (Line 7)→ promising 
	10. personnel (Line 13)→ personal
Exercise 3. (5 pts: 0.5 pt/each correct answer)
	1. beneficial
	2. presentation
	3. noticeable
	4. speech
	5. orally
	6. professional
	7. impression
	8. responses
	9. revisit
	10. unease
III. READING (30pts)
Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
	1. B
	2. C
	3. C
	4. A
	5. D
	6. C
	7. D
	8. B
	9. A
	10. D
Exercise 2. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
	1. wrong
	2. which
	3. others/ some
	4. by
	5. example/ instance
	6. fact
	7. of 
	8. out 
	9. Thanks 
	10. whether/ if
Exercise 3. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
	1.B
	2.C
	3. B
	4. B
	5. C
	6. A
	7. A
	8. B
	9. D
	10. B
IV. WRITING (25 pts) 
Exercise 1. (10pts: 1 pt/each correct answer)
11. Should you have any complaint about the product, return it to the shop.
12. I cancelled my subscription/ subscibing to that magazine nine months ago.
13. Never had she expected she was so successful/ she got so much/ such success.
14. The more proficient he was at the game, the more he was fond of it.
15. The operation left Simon feeling weaker than he (had) expected.
16. He must have recognized us at the airport.
17. Not until the journalists arrived at the avenue did they hear about the changes to the wedding plans.
18. Helen’s boss criticized her for not doing her work more carefully.
19. It has been suggested that the parking fees in the city (should) be raised.
20. The blue dress is three times as much/ expensive as that one.
Exercise 2. (15 pts)
Sometimes tourists may damage tourist sites. 
Explain what some of the negative effects may be. Suggest some solutions to this problem.
Marking scheme
The mark given is based on the following scheme: 
· Task achievement (25 % of total mark)
· Coherence and cohesion (25 % of total mark)
· Grammar range and Accuracy (25 % of total mark)
· Lexical resource (25 % of total mark)
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ENGLISH PRACTICE 19
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. curriculum	B. grammatical	C. repetitious	D. historical
2. A. emergency	B. geothermal	C. alternative	D. expensively
3. A. technology	B. variety	C. centenarian	D. Compulsory
4. a. reindeer	b. engineer	c. pioneer	d. referee
5. a. dangerous	b. marvelous	c. conspicuous	d. numerous
6. a. establish	b. illustrate	c. intimidate	d. inheritance
7. a. expansion	b. conversion	c. precision	d. explosion
8. a. eradicate	b. character	c. malaria	d. spectacular
9. A.encourage	B.financial	C.departure	D.average
10. A.career	B.request	C.ancient	D.machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer amongfour options (A, B, C or D). 
1. She looked very______ when I told her the good news.
	A. happily		B. happiness		C. happy		D. was happy
2. I don't want much sugar in my coffee. Just_______, please.
	A. few			B. a few		C. little			D. a little 
3. He's left his book at home; he's always so______.
	A. forgetful		B. forgettable		C. forgotten		D. forgetting
4. 'I'm very ______ to you for putting in so much hard work,' the boss said.
	A. thanking		B. grateful		C. considerate		D. careful
5. Steel_______ with chromium to produce a noncorrosive substance known as stainless steel.
	A. is combined		B. that is combined	C. combining		D. when combined
6. Joe seemed to be in a good mood, ________ he snapped at me angrily when I asked him to join us.
A. yet			B. so			C. for			D. and	
7. A fire must have a readily available supply of oxygen. ________, it will stop burning.
A. Consequently	B. Furthermore	C. Otherwise		D. However	
8. “Who has brothers and sisters?”
“Everyone ________Virginia who’s an only child.”
A. except to		B. with			C. from			D. but
9. He is the manager of the factory. He’s ________it.
A. charged with	B. charged		C. in charge		D. in charge of
10. He was new on the job, but he quickly fit himself into the ________ routine of the office.
A. establishing		B. established		C. establishes		D. establish
11. Florida, ________ the Sunshine State, attracts many tourists every year.
A. is			B. is known as		C. known as		D. that is known as
12. ________becoming extinct is of great concern to zoologists.
A. That giant pandas are			B. Giant pandas are
C. Are giant pandas				D. Giant panda is
13. Her parents gave her everything she asked for. She's a completed _______ child.
A. wounded 		B. spoilt 		C. damaged 		D. destroyed
14. _______ my experience, very few people really understand the problem.
A. To 			B. In 			C. With 		D. From
15. When she died, she gave _________ all her money to a charity for cats.
A. away		B. out			C. on	 		D. off
II. Complete the following passage by supplying the correct form of the word to fill in each blank. 
The increase in city crime is a global  phenomenon. Some people say that a lot of crime in this country is because of (1 - migrate) ______ and the new people arriving from other countries bring different (2 - culture) ______ values and attitudes to the law. I don’t agree with this idea because the most common crimes are (3 - local) ______ produced and not imported from other countries. (4 - Vandal) ______ is one of the biggest crimes in my city with bus shelters and shop windows being popular targets. Another popular crime is (5 - pay) ______ parking fines, which is unlikely to be because of immigrants because most of them do not own cars. The (6 - oppose) ______ point of view is that young local people feel angry when they can’t get a job and in order to (7 - hand) ______ the change in their environment, they strike out at easy targets. This would explain why bicycle (8 - thief) ______ is more common than car crime these days, especially in rich (9 - neighbors) ______ where most cars are protected with electronic alarms. Another reason, though, for so many bicycles getting stolen might be that the (10 - punish) ______ is not very severe compared to car stealing which can land you in prison for a number of years.
III. Fill in each blank with one suitable preposition. 
1. Most American men earn _______ average about $110 a week. 
2. He was walking through the park when a strange dog suddenly went _______ him.
3. My car is not worth much _______ most $ 50.
4. I’d better not drink that milk, Joe. It’s gone _______.
5. Clive was really cut _______ when he failed his proficiency exam.
IV. Identify the error in each sentence. Write the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet.
1. The children forgot picking up the note from the office and now they are worried.
 A B C D
2. Helen has never met such good person who is ready to help others.
 A B C D
3. If only I have done the test better than other students did.
 A B C D
4. If you want to borrow my car, promise to drive careful.
 A B C D
5. Rumors began circulating that the Prime Minister was seriously illness.
 A B C D
6. Everybody in class has to choose a topic of your own to write an essay of 500 words.
 A B C D
7. Neither of the boys had ever been out of town before, so they were really exciting.
 A B C D
8. I hope that I can help you with the historic questions.
 A B C D
9. My son learned to talk the time before he was 5 years old.
 A B C D
10. Jim offered us presents as if it had been Xmas.
 A B C D
PART III: READING 
I. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions. 
	Million of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are means of communication – having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. 
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the issues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High – tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about.
As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone of you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often.
1. According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because ______.
	A. they are indispensable in everyday communication
	B. they make them look more stylish
	C. they keep the users alert all the time
	D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones
2. The changes possible caused by the cell phones are mainly concernedwith______.
	A. the mobility of the mind and the body 		B. the smallest units of brain
	C. the arteries of the brain				D. the resident memory
3. The word "means" in the passage most closely means _______.
	A. meanings		B. expression		C. method		D. transmission
4. The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means _______.
	A. obviously		B. possibly		C. certainly		D. privately
5. "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means _______.
	A. information on the lethal effects of cell phones
	B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones
	C. the negative public use of cell phones
	D. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones
6. Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may _______.
	A. damage their users' emotions			B. cause some mental malfunction
	C. change their users' temperament			D. change their users' social behavior
7. The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often _______.
	A. suffered serious loss of mental ability		B. could no longer think lucidly
	C. abandoned his family				D. had a problem with memory
8. According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is ______.
	A. their radiant light					B. their power of attraction
	C. their raiding power					D. their invisible rays
9. According to the writer, people should _______.
	A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases	
B. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies
	C. keep off mobile phones regularly		
D. never used mobile phones in all cases
10.The most suitable title for the passage could be ______.
	A. "The reasons why mobile phones are regular"	
B. "Technological Innovation and their price"
	C. "They way mobile phones work"			
D. "Mobile phones – a must of our time"
II. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank. 
	Stamp collecting! What a wonderful hobby! I began when I was only five. I used to (1) ______ for the postman's arrival, always (2) ______ to seize unwanted envelopes and tear off the corner with the stamp stuck on it.
	Once – I remember it was too clearly – my mother and father were sunning themselves in the garden when the post (3) _____ on the doormat. I heard the clatter of the letter flap and hurriedly went to (4) ______. There were four or five envelops, all with very exciting stamps.
	Even at the (5) ______ age of five I knew one doesn't open mail addressed to other people. However, tearing just the corners off the envelops (6) ______ me as perfectly fair and allowable, and just what I did. I carefully tore as (7) ______ to the stamps as (8) _______, feeling that even the envelopes, which were addressed to my parents and not to be, should be treated with (9) _______.
	There were nothing furtive in what I did. I knew my parents would see what I'd done, and I didn't think there was any (10) ______ in it. They always let me (11) ______ the corners after they'd opened them. Why should I think there was any harm in doing it first, (12) ______ in mind that they weren't on hand to be (13) ______. Wouldn't they rather be left to doze in their summer deckchairs?
	(14) ______, though, my father solemnly showed me his letters. They looked distinctly moth-eaten, with bites taken out of the corners and sites. I began to (15) ______ what I've done.
1. A. stare		B. watch		C. look			D. peer
2. A. glad		B. pleased		C. eager		D. excited
3. A. came		B. was			C. lay			D. arrived
4. A. investigate	B. observe		C. see			D. notice
5. A. junior		B. tender		C. small 		D. little
6. A. struck		B. seemed		C. appeared		D. felt
7. A. nearby		B. close		C. next			D. round
8. A. able		B. possibly		C. possible		D. could
9. A. gentleness	B. caution		C. honor		D. respect
10. A. trouble		B. wrong		C. bad			D. harm
11. A. take		B. tear			C. cut			D. remove
12. A. having		B. holding		C. bearing		D. keeping
13. A. consulted	B. advised		C. queried		D. requested
14. A. After		B. Then		C. Later		D. Soon
15. A. accept		B. realize		C. admit		D. confess
III. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Write A, B, C or D to indicate your answers on the answer sheet. 
		Every drop of water in the ocean, even in the deepest parts, responds to the forces that create the tides. No other force that affects the sea is so strong. Compared with the tides, the waves created by the wind are surface movements felt no more than a hundred fathoms below the surface. The currents also seldom involve more than the upper several hundred fathoms despite their impressive sweep. 
		The tides are a response of the waters of the ocean to the pull of the Moon and the more distant Sun. In theory, there is a gravitational attraction between the water and even the outermost star of the universe. In reality, however, the pull of remote stars is so slight as to be obliterated by the control of the Moon and, to a lesser extent, the Sun. Just as the Moon rises later each day by fifty minutes, on the average, so, in most places, the time of high tide is correspondingly later each day. And as the Moon waxes and wanes in its monthly cycle, so the height of the tide varies. The tidal movements are strongest when the Moon is a sliver in the sky, and when it is full. These are the highest flood tides and the lowest ebb tides of the lunar month and are called the spring tides. At these times the Sun, Moon, and Earth are nearly in line and the pull of the two heavenly bodies is added together to bring the water high on the beaches, to send its surf upward against the sea cliffs, and to draw a high tide into the harbors. Twice each month, at the quarters of the Moon, when the Sun, Moon and Earth lie at the apexes of a triangular configuration and the pull of the Sun and Moon are opposed, the moderate tidal movements called neap tides occur. Then the difference between high and low water is less than at any other time during the month.
1. What is the main point of the first paragraph?
		A. The waves created by ocean currents are very large.
		B. Despite the strength of the wind, it only moves surface water.
		C. Deep ocean water is seldom affected by forces that move water.
		D. The tides are the most powerful force to affect the movement of ocean water.
2. The words "In reality" in the passage is closest in meaning to
		A. surprisingly 		B. actually		C. characteristically 	D. similarly
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the most important factor in determining how much gravitational effect one object in space has on the tides is
		A. size			B. distance		 C. temperature 	D. density
4. The word "configuration" in the passage is closest in meaning to
		A. unit 			B. center 		C. surface		 D. arrangement
5. Neap tides occur when
		A. the Sun counteracts the Moon's gravitational attraction
		B. the Moon is full
		C. the Moon is farthest from the Sun
		D. waves created by the wind combine with the Moon's gravitational attraction
PART IV. WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the word give. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. We are afraid that the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
REGRET
We  ________________________ the next train to Cardiff has been cancelled.
2. 'I was going to phone Sarah but I had too much homework to do', said John
MEANT
John said that ___________________  but he'd had too much homework to do.
3. Many people think that Gone with the Wind is one of the greatest films ever made.
BE
Gone with the Wind _________________  one of the greatest films ever made.
4. If you hold your breath for a few seconds it might get rid of your hiccups.
HOLDING
You might be able to get rid of your hiccups if you _____________ for a few seconds.
5. Anna didn't like it at all when one of her colleagues got the promotion instead of her.
RESENTED
Anna  _____________________ the promotion instead of her.
6. I have a good relationship with my neighbors. 
 ON
 My neighbors __________________well together.
7. It wasn't a good idea for me to spend all my money on beer and cigarettes, but I did.
 UP
 I wish ________________________ my money on beerand cigarettes.
8. The police left and then all the journalists arrived.
 ALREADY
 The police ____________________all the journalists arrived.
9. Although Sarah wasn't wearing a helmet, she wasn't injured in the accident.
OF
Sarah wasn't injured in the accident, ______________ a helmet.
10. She felt she had achieved a lot in life, despite her disadvantaged background.
	SENSE
Despite her disadvantaged background, she felt _______________ about her life.
Top of Form
II. Write a complete letter using the given word/phrases as cues. You should change the form of words if necessary.
1. Thank/ much/French/ cookery book/ you/ give/ me. 
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
2. recipes/ look/ wonderful/, and/ I/ certainly/ enjoy/ use/ it.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
3. I/ hope/ you/ and/ Auntie Susan/ have/ good/ Christmas. 
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
4. we/ stay/ at/ home/, but/ have/ couple/ day/ trips/ out/ nearby. 
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
5. our/ local/ theatre/ put/ on/ production/ "A Christmas Carol"/, which/ fun.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
6. I/ go/ back/ University/ next/ week/, and/ this/ year/ I/have/ to/ study/ hard/ final/ exams. 
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
7. I/ really/ enjoy/ the/ course/ so/ far/, but/ I/ not/ sure/ what/ do/ once/ I/ get/degree. 
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
8. university/ arrange/ career/ interviews/, but/ I/ not/really/ have/clear/ idea/what/ I/ want/ do. 
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
9. hopefully/ it/ all/ become/ clearer/ during/ course/ the/ year.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
10. Thank/ again/ lovely/ present/, and/ Happy/ New/ Year/
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Keys – practice 19
I – PRONUNCIATION
Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three in the following questions
1. A. curriculum	B. grammatical	C. repetitious	D. historical
2. A. emergency	B. geothermal	C. alternative	D. expensively
3. A. technology	B. variety	C. centenarian	D. Compulsory
4. a. reindeer		b. engineer			c. pioneer		d. referee
5. a. dangerous		b. marvelous			c. conspicuous	d. numerous
6. a. establish		b. illustrate			c. intimidate		d. inheritance
7. a. expansion		b. conversion			c. precision		d. explosion
8. a. eradicate		b. character			c. malaria		d. spectacular
9. A.encourage		B.financial			C.departure		D.average
10. A.career		B.request			C.ancient		D.machine
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. (15pts: 1/item)
	1. C
	2. D
	3. A
	4. B
	5. A
	6. A
	7. C
	8. D
	9. D
	10. B
	11. C
	12. A
	13. B
	14. B
	15. A
II. (10pts: 1/item)
	1. immigration
	3. locally
	5. unpaid
	7. handle
	9. neighborhoods
	2. cultural
	4. vandalism
	6. opposing
	8. theft
	10. punishment
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
	1. on
	2. for
	3. at
	4. off
	5. up
IV. (5pts: 0.5 pt/ item)
	1. A
	3. A
	5. D
	7. D
	9. B
	2. B
	4. D
	6. C
	8. D
	10. D
PART III. READING (30 pts)
I. (10pts: 1/item)
	1. A
	2. C
	3. C
	4. B
	5. B
	6. B
	7. D
	8. A
	9. A
	10. B
II. (15pts: 1/item)
	1. B
	2. C
	3. D
	4. A
	5. B
	6. A
	7. B
	8. C
	9. D
	10. D
	11. D
	12. C
	13. A
	14. C
	15. B
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
	1. D
	2. B
	3. B
	4. D
	5. A 
PART IV. WRITING (20pts)
I. (10pts: 1/item)
1. regret to inform/to tell you/announce that
2. he had meant to phone Sarah 
3. is considered/thought to be 
4. try holding your breath
5. resented one of her colleagues getting
6. and I get on
7. I hadn't used up
8. had already left when/before
9. in spite of not wearing
10. a sense of achievement
II. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. Thank you very much for the French cookery book you gave me. 
2. The recipes look wonderful, and I'll certainly enjoy using it.
3. I hope you and Auntie Susan had a good Christmas.
4. We stayed at home, but had a couple of day trips out nearby. 
5. Our local theatre put on a production of "A Christmas Carol", which was fun.
6. I am going back to University next week, and this year I'm going to have to study hard for the final exams. 
7. I've really enjoyed the course so far, but I'm not sure what to do once I get my degree. 
8. The University arranges career interviews, but I don't really have a clear idea of what I want to do. 
9. Hopefully it will all become clearer during the course of the year.
10. Thank you again for the lovely present, and Happy New Year!
ENGLISH PRACTICE 20
PART I. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. 
 1. A. latter 	B. label 	C. ladder 	D. latitude
2. A. pour 	B. roar 	C. flour 	D. soar
3. A. chase	B. purchase	C. bookcase	D. suitcase
4. A. thread 	B. feather 	C. bread 	D. bead
5. A. prepare	B. preface	C. preparation	D. prejudice 
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. 
1. A. amphibian		B. champagne		C. cathedral			D. creature
2. A. accommodation		B. antibiotic		C. counterclockwise		D. deforestation
3. A. consciousness		B. ecotourism		C. biosphere			D. confirm
4. A. architectural		B. cosmopolitan	C. appreciative			D. archeologist
5. A. consolidate		B. context		C. conference			D. confidence
PART II. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones.
 1. From 1949 onward, the artist Georgia O’keeffe made New Mexico _______.
A. her permanent residence was	B. where her permanent residence
C. permanent residence for her	D. her permanent residence
2. Just as remote-controlled satellites can be employed to explore outer space, _______ employed to investigate the deep sea.
A. can be robots 	 B. robots can be 	C. can robots 	D. can robots that are
 3. _______ is not clear to researchers.
A. Why dinosaurs having become extinct.	B. Why dinosaurs became extinct
C. Did dinosaurs become extinct	D. Dinosaurs became extinct
 4. The first transatlantic telephone cable system was not established _______ 1956.
A. while	B. until	C. on	D. when
 5. Drinking water _______ excessive amounts of fluorides may leave a stained or mottled effect on the enamel of teeth.
A. containing		B. in which containing
C. contains		D. that contain
6. In the 1820’s physical education became _______ of the curriculum of Harvard and Yale Universities.
A. to be part	B. which was part	C. was part	D part
7. If you can win his attention ___________ for you.
A. the so much better					B. the better so much
C. so much the better					D. so the much better
 8. The President resigned; the whiff of scandal remained ____________.
A. otherwise			B. therefore		C. immediately	D. nevertheless
9. Which __________ agency do you work for?
A. ads				B. advertised		C. advertising		D. advertisement
10. Van Gogh suffered from depression ____________ by overwork and ill-health.
A. brought on			B. coming about	C. taken up		D. put through
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. 
1. Had the committee members considered the alternatives more carefully, they would have realized that the second was superior than the first:
2. Malnutrition is a major cause of death in those countries where the cultivation of rice have been impeded by recurrent drought.
3. Because the residents had worked so diligent to renovate the old building, the manager had a party.
4. John’s wisdom teeth were troubling him, so he went to a dental surgeon to see about having them pull.
5. Time spends very slowly when you are waiting for a bus to arrive
6. Judy decided to wait until after she had taken her exams before having her wisdom teeth pull.
7. Hardly the plane had landed when Adam realized that he had left the file that he needed at his office.
8. When she was asked for her opinion on the course, she said it had been a waist of time.
9. I try to remember your name but I am afraid I cannot remember it. 
10. I’d prefer to do it on myself because other people make me nervous.
III. Fill in each blankwith a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. 
1. I know ________ experience that I do my best work early in the morning. 
2. I am astonished ________ the way my students can spend all night at the disco and still remember their prepositions next morning. 
3. Is it possible to insure yourself ________ nuclear attack?
4. At school today, we had a long discussion _______ the best way to learn a foreign language.
5. “How can I discourage my boyfriend _______ trying to kiss me all the time?” “Eat plenty of garlic.”
6. Raise the gun to your shoulder, aim _______ the target, and try not to kill anyone.
7. Small children should be watched ____________ carefully.
 8. Would you give up your country cottage __________ a town flat?
9. He’ll inherit the money when he comes ______________ age.
10.The performance on the first night came ______________ pretty. 
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. 
1. (ADAPT)__________ to a new environment is a difficult thing for old people. 
2. Police asked (PASS) ______________ if they had seen the accident happen.
3. What a (WORRY) ______________pair of children. They have to be watched every minute of the day.
4. Children are taught from young to be (RESPECT) _____________ to their elders.
5. They frequently (MOBILE) _________________ the traffic as they march through the streets.
6. He shook his head in _____________ (APPROVE)
7. He fought the illness with courage and ________________ (DETERMINE)
8. She seems (REASON) __________happy in her new job. 
9. Can we (ARRANGE) _____________the meeting for next Monday at 7? 
10. If you weren’t so (ACT)_______________, you wouldn’t be so fat! 
PART III. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D.
Action scenes in films
Modern cinema audiences expect to see plenty of thrilling scenes in action films. These scenes, which are (1) __________ as stunts, are usually performed by stuntmen who are specially trained to do dangerous things safely. (2) ________ can crash a car, but if you are shooting a film, you have to be extremely (3) __________ sometimes stopping right in front of the camera and film crew. At an early (4) ___________ in the production, an expert stuntman is (5) __________ in to work out the action scenes and form a team. He is the only person who can go (6) __________ the wishes of the director, although he will usually only do this in the (7) __________ of safety.
Many famous actors like to do the dangerous parts themselves, which produces better shots, since stuntmen don’t have to (8) _________ in for the actors. Actors like to become (9) _________ in all the important aspects of the character they are playing, but without the recent progress in safety equipment, insurance companies would never let them take the risk. To do their own stunts, actors need to be good athletes, but they must also be sensible and know their (10) ___________.If they were to be hurt, the film would come to a sudden halt.
1. A. remarked			B. known		C. referred		D. named
2. A. Everyone			B. Someone		C. Anyone		D. No one
3. A. detailed			B. plain			C. straight		D. precise
4. A. period			B. minute		C. part			D. stage
5. A. led			B. taken		C. drawn		D. called
6. A. over			B. against		C. through		D. across
7. A. interests			B. needs		C. purposes		D. regards
8. A. work			B. get			C. put			D. stand
9. A. connected		B. arranged		C. involved		D. affected
10. A. limits			B. ends			C. frontiers		D. borders
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. 
THE BIRTH OF THE T-SHIRT
The T-shirt, or at least the T-shirt as we know it, was born in the theatre. When Tennessee William's play A Streetcar Named Oesire opened in New York in December 1947, a young actor (1) ____________ Marlon Brando went (2) __________ stage wearing a (3) _________ of blue jeans and a bright, white, capped-sleeve T-shirt. It was the first time the T-shirt had been seen publicly as anything (4) ____________ an item of underwear and it set a fashion trend that was to last through (5) _____________ the end of the century. The idea for the T-shirt came (6) __________ Brando himself. He had worn one at rehearsals for the play. The director was so impressed by the look that was created that he asked Brando to wear the shirt in the play itself. Brando may have seen the shirt being advertised by the American company Sears Roebuck. They had decided to market the shirt (7) ___________ a fashionable garment in its (8) ____________ right, rather than just something to be worn (9) __________ warmth beneath a denim workshirt (10) ___________ an army uniform. It was Brando, however, who popularized it, especially with the release of the film version of Streetcar in 1951. A short leather jacket completed the look that was to be adopted by teenage rebels in many countries for decades afterwards.
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. 
Since the world became industrialized, the number of animal species that have either become extinct or have neared extinction has increased. Bengal tigers, for instance, which once roamed the jungles in vast numbers, now number only about 2,300. By the year 2025, it is estimated that they will become extinct. What is alarming about the case of the Bengal tiger is that this extinction will have been caused almost entirely by poachers who, according to some sources, are not always interested in material gain but in personal gratification. This is an example of the callousness that is contributing to the problem of extinction. Animals, such as Bengal tiger, as well as other endangered species, are valuable parts of the world’s ecosystem. International laws protecting these animals must be enacted to ensure their survival and the survival of our planet.
Countries around the world have begun to deal with the problem in various ways. Some countries, in an effort to circumvent the problem, have allocated large amounts of land to animal reserves. They then charge admission prices to help defray the costs of maintaining the parks, and they often must also depend on world organizations for support. This money enables them to invest in equipment and patrols to protect the animals. Another response to the increase in animal extinction is an international boycott of products made from endangered species. This has had some effect, but by itself it will not prevent animals from being hunted and killed.
1. What is the main topic of the passage?
A. the Bengal tiger					B. international boycott	
C. endangered species				D. problems with industrialization
2. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the world “alarming” in the first paragraph?
A. dangerous		B. serious			C. gripping		D. distressing
3. The word “poachers” as used in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. illegal hunters					B. enterprising researchers		
C. concerned scientists				D. trained hunters
4. The word “callousness” in the first paragraph could best be replaced by which of the following?
A. indirectness	B. independence 			C. incompetence	D. insensitivity
5. The above passage is divided into two paragraphs in order to contrast.
A. a problem and a solution				B. a statement and an illustration
C. a comparison and contrast				D. specific and general information
6. What does the word “this” in the first paragraph refer to in the passage?
A. Bengal tigers					B. Interest in material gain
C. Killing animals for personal satisfaction		D. The decrease in the Bengal tiger population
7. Which of the following could best replace the word “allocated” in the second paragraph?
A. set aside		B. combined			C. organized		D. taken off
8. The word “defray” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. lower		B. raise		C. make a payment on		D. make an investment toward
9. What does the term “international boycott” in the second paragraph refer to?
A. buying and selling of animal products overseas
B. a refusal to buy animal products worldwide
C. a global increase in animalsurvival
D. defraying the cost of maintaining national parks
10. Which of the following best describes the author’s attitude?
A. forgiving		B. concerned		C. vindictive			D. surprised 
PART IV. WRITING 
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. 
1. She never seems to succeed even though she works hard.
Hard _____________________________________________________. 
2. Do all the washing, please!  
Let ______________________________________________________.
3. I regret not going to the airport to say good bye to him.
I wish ___________________________________________________. 
4. Mick thought that we were married.
Mick was under _________________________________________. 
5. The only thing that kept us out of prison was the way he spoke the local dialect.
But for his command ____________________________________.
II. Write an essay ( about 250 words) about the following topic: 
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences.
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..
Keys – practice 20
PART II. PHONETICS
I. Pick out the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
	1. B
	2.C
	3.B
	4.D
	5.D
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is differently from those of the other words. (5pts)
	1.D
	2.C
	3.D
	4.C
	5.D
PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
	1. D
	2.B
	3.B
	4.B
	5.A
	6.D
	7.C
	8.D
	9.C
	10.A
II. Each sentence below contains 1 mistake. IDENTIFY the mistakes and WRITE THEIR CORRECT FORMS. (10pts)
1. to the first 	2. has	3. diligently 	4. them pulled	5. Time passes
6. pulled	7. had the plane	8. waste of time	9. am trying	10. by myself
III. Fill in each blank with a suitable PREPOSITION or PARTICLE. (10pts)
	1. from
	2. at/by
	3.against
	4. about
	5. from
	6.at
	7.over
	8. for
	9.of
	10.off
IV. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10pts)
	1. Adaptation
	2. passers-by
	3.worrisome
	4.respectful
	5.immobilize
	6.disapproval
	7.determination
	8.reasonably
	9.rearrange
	10.inactive
 PART IV. READING
I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
	1.B
	2.C
	3.D
	4.D
	5.D
	6.B
	7.A
	8.D
	9.C
	10.A
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts) 
	1.named/called
	2.on
	3.pair
	4.but/ except
	5.to/until
	6.from
	7.as
	8.own
	9.for
	10.or
III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
	1.C
	2.D
	3.A
	4.D
	5.A
	6.C
	7.A
	8.C
	9.B
	10.B
PART V. WRITING 
I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed before it. (10pts)
1. Hard as/ though she works, she never seems to succeed.
2. Let all the washing be done.
3. I wish I had gone to the airport to say good bye to him.
4. Mick was under the impression that we were married
5. But for his command of the local dialect, we could have been put into prison / jail.
 
II. Write an essay (of about 250 words) about the following topic (20pts)
Some people say that traffic accidents are caused by the increasing number of motorbikes. Others blame for man’s fault. Which point of view do you agree? State at least three relevant evidences.
Marking scheme
The impression mark given is based on the following scheme: 
1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of English language gifted upper-secondary school students. 
	
------The end ------
ENGLISH PRACTICE 21
I. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (10.8 pts)
a. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to complete the sentences. 
1. She swam strongly and_______ cross the river easily, even though it was swollen by the heavy rain.
A. used to	B. was able to	C. could	D. was supposed to
2. The government has spent one million pounds on an advertising ______ to encourage energy conservation.
A. campaign	B. promotion	C. operation	D. competition
3. Toxic chemicals are one of the factors that lead wildlife to the ______ of extinction. 
 A. wall	B. fence	C. verge	D. bridge
4. ______ the best of my knowledge, this system cannot work automatically.
A. For	B. To		C. Within		D. In
5. The aim of ASEAN is to promote closer economic_______. 
A. delegation	B. integration	C. reputation		D. migration
6. The International Committee of the Red Cross is a private _______ institution founded 
in 1863 in Geneva, Switzerland.
A. human	B. humanity	C. humanization	D. humanitarian
7. Affected by the Western cultures, Vietnamese young people's attitudes _______ love and marriage have dramatically changed.
A. for	B. with	C. through	D. towards
8. How do you speak the fraction 2/5?
A. two-five	B. two-fifths		C. second-fifths		D. two-fifth
9. Don’t be late for the interview, _______ people will think you are a disorganized person.
A. unless	B. otherwise	C. if not	D. or so
10. You may borrow as many books as you like, provided you show them to ______ at the desk.
A. whoever	B. who		C. whom		D. which 
11. It is essential that your luggage _______ thoroughly before delivery.
A. to be checked	B. being checked	C. be checked	D. should be checking
12. The reason why this game attracts so many youngsters is that ___________ other video games, this one is far more interesting.
A. comparing to	B. in compared with	
C. on comparison to	D. in comparison with
13. Take the shortcut round the church _______ late for school.
A. in order not be		B. in order that we won't be 
C. so that not to be	 D. so that we couldn't 
14. A cooperative program between two companies building a famous ancient city, into 
a(n) _______ city has proceeded smoothly since it started in September last year.
A. friendly ecology			B. ecology-friendly	 
C. friendly-ecological		 D. ecological-friendly
15. Doctor Pike ______ the hospital after he ______an uneventful evening on duty. He ______ of his day of rest.
A. was leaving / has had / thought	B. left / had had / was thinking
C. will leave / had / will think	D. is leaving / will have / thinks
16. Something _____ immediately to prevent teenagers from _____ in factories and mines.
 A. should be done /being exploited	B. we should do /exploiting
 C. should do / be exploited	D. should have done /exploited
17. John: “Have you decided on a present yet?” 
 Ben: “Almost, I need to choose one of _______.”
A. new two exciting spy novels	B. two spy exciting new novels
C. two exciting new spy novels D. exciting new two spy novels
b. Choose the best option A, B, C or D to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
1. I knew he was only flattering me because he wanted to borrow some money.
A. making me impatient         	 B. praising me too much        
C. making me feel worse 		 D. elevating me        
2. We spent the entire day looking for a new apartment.
A. all day long	B. all long day 		C. the long day	 D. day after day 
3. He testified that he had seen the man leaving the building around the time of the murder.
A. said		B. provided evidence