CompTIA Network N10-008 Updated Dumps

Text Material Preview

N10-008
Exam Name: CompTIA Network+Exam
Full version: 613 Q&As
Full version of N10-008 Dumps
Share some N10-008 exam dumps below.
1. A company is utilizing multifactor authentication for data center access.
Which of the following is the MOST effective security mechanism against physical intrusions
due to stolen credentials?
A. Biometrics security hardware
B. Access card readers
 1 / 49
https://www.certqueen.com/N10-008.html
C. Access control vestibule
D. Motion detection cameras
Answer: C
2. A network technician is installing an analog desk phone for a new receptionist After running a
new phone line, the technician now needs to cnmp on a new connector.
Which of the following connectors would MOST likely be used in this case?
A. DB9
B. RJ11
C. RJ45
D. DB25
Answer: B
Explanation:
RJ11 is a type of connector that is commonly used for analog phone lines. RJ11 has four wires
and six positions, but only two or four of them are used. A technician can crimp an RJ11
connector to a new phone line to install an analog desk phone for a new receptionist.
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-rj11
3. Which of the following compromises internet-connected devices and makes them vulnerable
to becoming part of a botnet? (Select TWO).
A. Deauthentication attack
B. Malware infection
C. IP spoofing
D. Firmware corruption
E. Use of default credentials
F. Dictionary attack
Answer: BE
4. Which of the following protocols is widely used in large-scale enterprise networks to support
complex networks with multiple routers and balance traffic load on multiple links?
A. OSPF
B. RIPv2
C. QoS
D. STP
Answer: A
 2 / 49
5. A network technician is hired to review all the devices within a network and make
recommendations to improve network efficiency.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST before reviewing and making any
recommendations?
A. Capture a network baseline
B. Perform an environmental review.
C. Read the network logs
D. Run a bandwidth test
Answer: A
Explanation:
Before making any recommendations, a network technician should first capture a network
baseline, which is a snapshot of the current performance of the network. This will give the
technician a baseline to compare against after any changes are made. According to the
CompTIA Network+ Study Manual, the technician should "capture the state of the network
before making any changes and then compare the performance after the changes have been
made. This will provide an accurate baseline to compare the performance of the network before
and after the changes have been made."
6. A network administrator redesigned the positioning of the APs to create adjacent areas of
wireless coverage. After project validation, some users still report poor connectivity when their
devices maintain an association to a distanced AP.
Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST?
A. Validate the roaming settings on the APs and WLAN clients
B. Verify that the AP antenna type is correct for the new layout
C. Check to see if MU-MIMO was properly activated on the APs
D. Deactivate the 2.4GHz band on the APS
Answer: A
Explanation:
The network administrator should check the roaming settings on the APs and WLAN clients first.
Roaming is the process of switching from one AP to another without losing connectivity. If the
roaming settings are not configured properly, some users may experience poor connectivity
when their devices stay connected to a distant AP instead of switching to a closer one.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-
wlan/82068-roam-faq.html
7. A technician is consolidating a topology with multiple SSlDs into one unique SSID
 3 / 49
deployment.
Which of the following features will be possible after this new configuration?
A. Seamless roaming
B. Basic service set
C. WPA
D. MU-MIMO
Answer: A
8. A small, family-run business uses a single SOHO router to provide Internet and WiFi to its
employees. At the start of a new week, employees come in and find their usual WiFi network is
no longer available, and there is a new wireless network to which they cannot connect.
Given that information, which of the following should have been done to avoid this situation?
A. The device firmware should have been kept current.
B. Unsecure protocols should have been disabled.
C. Parental controls should have been enabled
D. The default credentials should have been changed
Answer: D
Explanation:
The default credentials are the username and password that come with a device or service
when it is first installed or configured. They are often easy to guess or find online, which makes
them vulnerable to unauthorized access or attacks. The default credentials should be changed
to something unique and strong as soon as possible to avoid this situation. If the default
credentials were not changed, someone could have accessed the SOHO router and changed
the WiFi settings without the employees’ knowledge.
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/network-security-basics-6-easy-ways-to-protect-your-
network
9. Which of the following is a security flaw in an application or network?
A. A threat
B. A vulnerability
C. An exploit
D. A risk
Answer: B
Explanation:
A vulnerability is a security flaw in an application or network that can be exploited by an
attacker, allowing them to gain access to sensitive data or take control of the system.
 4 / 49
Vulnerabilities can range from weak authentication methods to unpatched software, allowing
attackers to gain access to the system or data they would not otherwise be able to access.
Exploits are programs or techniques used to take advantage of vulnerabilities, while threats are
potential dangers, and risks are the likelihood of a threat becoming a reality.
10. A WAN technician reviews activity and identifies newly installed hardware that is causing
outages over an eight-hour period.
Which of the following should be considered FIRST?
A. Network performance baselines
B. VLAN assignments
C. Routing table
D. Device configuration review
Answer: D
11. Which of the following BEST describes a spirt-tunnel client-to-server VPN connection?
A. The client sends an network traffic down the VPN tunnel
B. The client has two different IP addresses that can be connected to a remote site from two
different ISPs to ensure availability
C. The client sends some network traffic down the VPN tunnel and other traffic to the local
gateway.
D. The client connects to multiple remote sites at the same time
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a split-tunnel VPN, the client can access both the local network and the remote network
simultaneously, with some network traffic sent through the VPN tunnel and other traffic sent to
the local gateway. This approach allows for more efficient use of bandwidth and reduces the
load on the VPN server. It also allows the client to continue accessing local resources while
connected to the remote network.
12. A network administrator responds to a support ticket that was submitted by a customer who
is having issues connecting to a website inside of the company network. The administrator
verities that the customer could not connect to a website using a URL.
Which of the following troubleshooting steps would be BEST for the administrator to take?
A. Check for certificate issues
B. Contact the ISP
C. Attempt to connect to the site via IP address
 5 / 49
D. Check the NTP configuration.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best option for the administrator to take would be to attempt to connect to the site via IP
address. This will help to determine if the issue is related to the website's DNS address or if the
site itself is not accessible. Checking for certificate issues may be necessary, but this should be
done afterthe administrator has attempted to connect to the site via IP address. Contacting the
ISP is unnecessary since the issue is related to the website inside of the company network, and
checking the NTP configuration is not relevant to this issue.
When a customer is having issues connecting to a website using a URL, one of the first
troubleshooting steps a network administrator should take is attempting to connect to the site
using the IP address of the website. This will help to determine if the issue is related to a DNS
resolution problem or a connectivity problem. If the administrator is able to connect to the
website using the IP address, then the issue may be related to a DNS problem. However, if the
administrator is still unable to connect, then the issue may be related to a connectivity problem.
In either case, further troubleshooting steps will be necessary. Checking for certificate issues or
NTP configuration, and contacting the ISP would not be the BEST initial steps in this scenario.
13. A company is reviewing ways to cut the overall cost of Its IT budget. A network technician
suggests removing various computer programs from the IT budget and only providing these
programs on an as-needed basis.
Which of the following models would meet this requirement?
A. Multitinency
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
SaaS stands for Software as a Service and is a cloud computing model where software
applications are hosted and delivered over the internet by a service provider. SaaS can help the
company cut the overall cost of its IT budget by eliminating the need to purchase, install,
update, and maintain various computer programs on its own devices. The company can access
the programs on an as-needed basis and pay only for what it uses. Multitenancy is a feature of
cloud computing where multiple customers share the same physical or virtual resources. IaaS
stands for Infrastructure as a Service and is a cloud computing model where computing
resources such as servers, storage, and networking are provided over the internet by a service
 6 / 49
provider. VPN stands for Virtual Private Network and is a technology that creates a secure and
encrypted connection over a public network.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 7.0 (N10-007), Objective
1.9:
Compare and contrast common network service types.
14. A network technician was troubleshooting an issue for a user who was being directed to
cloned websites that were stealing credentials. The URLs were correct for the websites but an
incorrect IP address was revealed when the technician used ping on the user's PC After
checking the is setting, the technician found the DNS server address was incorrect.
Which of the following describes the issue?
A. Rogue DHCP server
B. Misconfigured HSRP
C. DNS poisoning
D. Exhausted IP scope
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS poisoning is a type of attack that modifies the DNS records of a domain name to point to a
malicious IP address instead of the legitimate one. This can result in users being directed to
cloned websites that are stealing credentials, even if they enter the correct URL for the website.
The incorrect DNS server address on the user’s PC could be a sign of DNS poisoning, as the
attacker could have compromised the DNS server or spoofed its response to redirect the user’s
queries.
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-dns-poisoning
15. While working in a coffee shop, an attacker watches a user log in to a corporate system and
writes down the user's log-in credentials.
Which of the following social engineering attacks is this an example of?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Dumpster diving
C. Phishing
D. Tailgating
Answer: A
Explanation:
Shoulder surfing is the social engineering attack where an attacker watches a user log in to a
corporate system and writes down the user’s log-in credentials. Social engineering is a type of
 7 / 49
attack that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate or trick people into revealing
sensitive information or performing malicious actions. Shoulder surfing is a form of social
engineering that involves observing or eavesdropping on someone’s screen, keyboard, or
paper documents to obtain confidential information such as passwords, PINs, or credit card
numbers. Shoulder surfing can be done in person or remotely using cameras or other devices.
Shoulder surfing can be prevented by using privacy filters, locking screens, shielding keyboards,
or being aware of one’s
surroundings.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is Shoulder Surfing? |
Definition & Examples | Forcepoint
16. A network engineer configured new firewalls with the correct configuration to be deployed to
each remote branch. Unneeded services were disabled, and all firewall rules were applied
successfully.
Which of the following should the network engineer perform NEXT to ensure all the firewalls are
hardened successfully?
A. Ensure an implicit permit rule is enabled
B. Configure the log settings on the firewalls to the central syslog server
C. Update the firewalls with current firmware and software
D. Use the same complex passwords on all firewalls
Answer: C
Explanation:
Updating the firewalls with current firmware and software is an important step to ensure all the
firewalls are hardened successfully, as it can fix any known vulnerabilities or bugs and provide
new features or enhancements. Enabling an implicit permit rule is not a good practice for firewall
hardening, as it can allow unwanted traffic to pass through the firewall. Configuring the log
settings on the firewalls to the central syslog server is a good practice for monitoring and
auditing purposes, but it does not harden the firewalls themselves. Using the same complex
passwords on all firewalls is not a good practice for password security, as it can increase the
risk of compromise if one firewall is breached.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives Version 2.0 (Exam Number:
N10-006), Domain 3.0 Network Security, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, implement network
hardening techniques.
17. A new office space is being designed. The network switches are up. but no services are
running yet A network engineer plugs in a laptop configured as a DHCP client to a switch.
 8 / 49
Which of the following IP addresses should be assigned to the laptop?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 169.254.1.128
C. 172 16 128 128
D. 192 168.0.1
Answer: B
Explanation:
When a DHCP client is connected to a network and no DHCP server is available, the client can
automatically configure a link-local address in the 169.254.0.0/16 range using the Automatic
Private IP Addressing (APIPA) feature. So, the correct answer is option B, 169.254.1.128. This
is also known as an APIPA address.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, by Todd Lammle
(Chapter 4: IP Addressing)
18. A user reports that a new VoIP phone works properly, but the computer that is connected to
the phone cannot access any network resources.
Which of the following MOST likely needs to be configured correctly to provide network
connectivity to the computer?
A. Port duplex settings
B. Port aggregation
C. ARP settings
D. VLAN tags
E. MDIX settings
Answer: A
19. A Chief Executive Officer and a network administrator came to an agreement With a vendor
to purchase new equipment for the data center A document was drafted so all parties would be
Informed about the scope of the project before It started.
Which of the following terms BEST describes the document used?
A. Contract
B. Project charter
C. Memorandum of understanding
D. Non-disclosure agreement
Answer: B
Explanation:
The document used to inform all parties about the scope of the project before it starts is likely a
 9 / 49
project charter.A project charter is a document that outlines the key aspects of a project, including the project's
objectives, scope, stakeholders, and resources. It serves as a formal agreement between the
project team and the stakeholders, and helps to define the project's goals and constraints.
A project charter typically includes information about the project's scope, including the specific
deliverables that are expected and any constraints or limitations that may impact the project. It
may also include details about the project team and stakeholders, the project schedule and
budget, and the roles and responsibilities of each party.
By creating a project charter, the Chief Executive Officer and the network administrator can
ensure that all parties involved in the project have a clear understanding of the project's goals
and objectives, and can help to prevent misunderstandings or miscommunications during the
project.
What is in a project charter?
A project charter is a formal short document that states a project exists and provides project
managers with written authority to begin work. A project charter document describes a project to
create a shared understanding of its goals, objectives and resource requirements before the
project is scoped out in detail.
What are the 5 elements of the project charter?
What Are the Contents of a Project Charter? A project charter should always include an
overview, an outline of scope, an approximate schedule, a budget estimate, anticipated risks,
and key stakeholders
20. To comply with an industry regulation, all communication destined to a secure server should
be logged and archived on a storage device.
Which of the Mowing can be configured to fulfill this requirement?
A. QoS traffic classification
B. Port mirroring
C. Flow control
D. Link Aggregation Control Protocol
Answer: B
21. Which of the following would be used to enforce and schedule critical updates with
supervisory approval and include backup plans in case of failure?
A. Business continuity plan
B. Onboarding and offboarding policies
C. Acceptable use policy
 10 / 49
D. System life cycle
E. Change management
Answer: A
22. A network administrator requires redundant routers on the network, but only one default
gateway is configurable on a workstation.
Which of the following will allow for redundant routers with a single IP address?
A. EIGRP
B. VRRP
C. MPLS
D. STP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP) is a protocol that allows for redundant routers on
the network with a single IP address. VRRP works by creating a virtual router that consists of
one master router and one or more backup routers. The virtual router has its own IP address
and MAC address that are shared among the routers in the group. The master router responds
to traffic sent to the virtual router’s IP address, while the backup routers monitor the master
router’s status. If the master router fails, one of the backup routers takes over as the new
master router and continues to respond to traffic. This way, VRRP provides high availability and
fault tolerance for the network.
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 230)
23. Which of the following would a network administrator configure to set NTP settings for a
specific subnet within DHCP?
A. Reservation
B. Lease time
C. Scope options
D. Exclusion range
Answer: C
Explanation:
The network administrator would configure scope options to set NTP settings for a specific
subnet within DHCP. Scope options are settings that apply to a range of IP addresses that are
assigned by a DHCP server. Scope options can include parameters such as default gateway,
DNS server, and NTP server. By configuring the NTP server option for a specific scope, the
network administrator can ensure that the devices in that subnet synchronize their clocks with
 11 / 49
the same time source.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 121; The Official
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 5-11.
24. An engineer is using a tool to run an ICMP sweep of a network to find devices that are
online. When reviewing the results, the engineer notices a number of workstations that are
currently verified as being online are not listed in the report.
The tool was configured to scan using the following information:
Network address: 172.28.16.0
CIDR: /22
The engineer collected the following information from the client workstation:
IP address: 172.28.17.206
Subnet mask: 255.255.252.0
Which of the following MOST likely explains why the tool is failing to detect some workstations?
A. The scanned network range is incorrect.
B. The subnet mask on the client is misconfigured.
C. The workstation has a firewall enabled.
D. The tool is unable to scan remote networks.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A firewall is a device or software that filters and controls the incoming and outgoing network
traffic
based on predefined rules. A firewall can block ICMP packets, which are used for ping and
other diagnostic tools. If the workstation has a firewall enabled, it may not respond to the ICMP
sweep and appear as offline. The engineer should check the firewall settings on the workstation
and allow ICMP traffic if needed.
Reference: Network+ Study Guide Objective 4.1: Given a scenario, use the appropriate tool.
25. A network technician receives a support ticket concerning multiple users who are unable
access the company's shared drive.
The switch interface that the shared drive Is connected to is displaying die following:
 12 / 49
Which of the following is MOST likely the Issue?
A. The switchport Is shut down
B. The cable Is not plugged In.
C. The loopoack Is not set
D. The bandwidth configuration is incorrect.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The switchport is shut down, which means it is administratively disabled and cannot forward
traffic. The image shows that the switchport status is “down” and the protocol status is “down”,
indicating that there is no physical or logical connection. The cable is plugged in, as shown by
the “connected” message under the interface name. The loopback is not set, as shown by the
“loopback not set” message under the encapsulation type. The bandwidth configuration is
correct, as shown by the “BW 10000 Kbit/sec” message under the MTU size.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 3.0 Infrastructure,
Objective 3.1: Given a scenario, use appropriate networking tools, Subobjective: Command line
tools (ping, netstat, tracert, etc.)
26. An engineer is designing a network topology for a company that maintains a large on-
premises private cloud. A design requirement mandates internet-facing hosts to be partitioned
off from the internal LAN and internal server IP ranges.
Which of the following defense strategies helps meet this requirement?
A. Implementing a screened subnet
B. Deploying a honeypot
C. Utilizing network access control
D. Enforcing a Zero Trust model
Answer: A
Explanation:
A screened subnet is a network topology that uses two firewalls to isolate a segment of the
network from both the internal LAN and the internet. The screened subnet, also known as a
demilitarized zone (DMZ), hosts the internet-facing servers that need to be accessible from
outside the network, such as web servers, mail servers, or DNS servers. The first firewall, also
known as the external firewall, filters the traffic between the internet and the DMZ, allowing only
the necessary ports and protocols to pass through. The second firewall, also known as the
internal firewall, filters the traffic between the DMZ and the internal LAN, allowing only
authorized and secure connections to access the internal resources. This way, the screened
subnet provides a layer of protection for both the internet-facing hosts and the internal LAN from13 / 49
potential attacks12.
The other options are not defense strategies that help meet the design requirement of
partitioning off the internet-facing hosts from the internal LAN and internal server IP ranges.
Deploying a honeypot is a deception technique that lures attackers to a fake system or network
that mimics the real one, in order to monitor their activities and collect information about their
methods and motives. However, a honeypot does not isolate or protect the internet-facing hosts
from the rest of the network3. Utilizing network access control is a security method that enforces
policies on who or what can access the network resources, based on factors such as identity,
role, device type, location, or time. However, network access control does not create a separate
segment for the internet-facing hosts from the internal LAN. Enforcing a Zero Trust model is a
security paradigm that assumes no trust for any entity inside or outside the network, and
requires continuous verification and validation of every request and transaction. However, a
Zero Trust model does not necessarily imply a specific network topology or architecture for
separating the internet-facing hosts from the internal LAN.
27. Which of the following is used to track and document various types of known vulnerabilities?
A. CVE
B. Penetration testing
C. Zero-day
D. SIEM
E. Least privilege
Answer: A
Explanation:
CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures, which is a list of publicly disclosed
cybersecurity vulnerabilities that is free to search, use, and incorporate into products and
services. CVE provides a standardized identifier and description for each vulnerability, as well
as references to related sources of information. CVE helps to track and document various types
of known vulnerabilities and facilitates communication and coordination among security
professionals.
Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-
n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://cve.mitre.org/cve/
28. You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network
security.
Requirements:
 14 / 49
Datacenter
Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing
address space usage
Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53
traffic Building A
Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing
address space usage
Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users Add an additional mobile user
Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution
Screened subnet
Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing
address space usage
Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic
Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic
INSTRUCTIONS
Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and
not all placeholders need to be filled.
Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag & Drop menu.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the
Reset All button.
 15 / 49
Answer:
Screened Subnet devices C Web server, FTP server
Building A devices C SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left
DataCenter devices C DNS server.
 16 / 49
29. A network administrator is setting up a new phone system and needs to define the location
where VoIP phones can download configuration files.
Which of the following DHCP services can be used to accomplish this task?
A. Scope options
B. Exclusion ranges
C. Lease time
D. Relay
Answer: A
Explanation:
To define the location where VoIP phones can download configuration files, the network
administrator can use scope options within the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
service. Scope options are a set of values that can be configured within a DHCP scope, which
defines a range of IP addresses that can be leased to clients on a network. One of the scope
options that can be configured is the option for the location of the configuration file server, which
specifies the URL or IP address of the server where the configuration files can be downloaded.
https://pbxbook.com/voip/dhcpcfg.html
30. Which of the following attacks, if successful, would provide a malicious user who is
 17 / 49
connected to an isolated guest network access to the corporate network?
A. VLAN hopping
B. On-path attack
C. IP spoofing
D. Evil twin
Answer: A
Explanation:
The attack which, if successful, would provide a malicious user who is connected to an isolated
guest network access to the corporate network is VLAN hopping. VLAN hopping is an attack
technique which involves tricking a switch into sending traffic from one VLAN to another. This is
done by sending specially crafted packets, which force the switch to send traffic from one VLAN
to another, thus allowing the malicious user to gain access to the corporate network.
VLAN hopping is an attack technique which involves tricking a switch into sending traffic from
one VLAN to another. This is done by sending specially crafted packets, which force the switch
to send traffic from one VLAN to another, thus allowing the malicious user to gain access to the
corporate network. According to the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Exam Guide VLAN hopping is
a type of attack that is used to gain access to network resources that are not meant to be
accessible by a user on a guest network.
31. A network technician is troubleshooting a connection to a web server. The Technician Is
unable to ping the server but is able to verify connectivity to the web service using Tenet.
Which of the following protocols is being blocked by me firewall?
A. UDP
B. ARP
C. ICMP
D. TCP
Answer: C
Explanation:
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol) is a protocol that is used to send error and control
messages between network devices, such as ping requests and replies. ICMP is being blocked
by the firewall, which prevents the network technician from pinging the web server. TCP
(Transmission Control Protocol) is a protocol that provides reliable and ordered delivery of data
between network devices, such as web service requests and responses using HTTP (Hypertext
Transfer Protocol). TCP is not being blocked by the firewall, which allows the network technician
to verify connectivity to the web service using Telnet. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a
protocol that provides fast and efficient delivery of data between network devices, but does not
 18 / 49
guarantee reliability or order. UDP is used for applications such as streaming media or online
gaming. ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) is a protocol that resolves IP addresses to MAC
addresses on a local network.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2.0 Networking
Concepts, Objective 2.1: Compare and contrast OSI and TCP/IP models, Subobjective: TCP/IP
model layers (Application/Transport/Internet/Network Interface)
32. A security engineer is trying to determine whether an internal server was accessed by hosts
on the internet. The internal server was shut down during the investigation.
Which of the following will the engineer review to determine whether the internal server had an
unauthorized access attempt?
A. The server's syslog
B. The NetFlow statistics
C. The firewall logs
D. The audit logs on the core switch
Answer: A
33. A network technician needs to ensure that all files on a company's network can be moved in
a safe and protected manner without interception from someone who is not the intended
recipient.
Which of the following would allow the network technician to meet these requirements?A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SMTP
D. SFTP
Answer: D
34. A technician needs to set up a wireless connection that utilizes MIMO on non-overlapping
channels.
Which of the following would be the best choice?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11n
Answer: D
Explanation:
 19 / 49
35. Which of the following types of devices can provide content filtering and threat protection,
and manage multiple IPSec site-to-site connections?
A. Layer 3 switch
B. VPN headend
C. Next-generation firewall
D. Proxy server
E. Intrusion prevention
Answer: C
Explanation:
Next-generation firewalls can provide content filtering and threat protection, and can manage
multiple IPSec site-to-site connections.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Network Security.
36. A systems administrator wants to use the least amount of equipment to segment two
departments that nave cables terminating in the same room.
Which of the following would allow this to occur?
A. A load balancer
B. A proxy server
C. A Layer 3 switch
D. A hub
E. A Layer 7 firewall
F. The RSSI was not strong enough on the link
Answer: C
37. A technician is configuring a static IP address on a new device in a newly created subnet.
The work order specifies the following requirements:
• The IP address should use the highest address available in the subnet.
• The default gateway needs to be set to 172.28.85.94.
• The subnet mask needs to be 255.255.255.224.
Which of the following addresses should the engineer apply to the device?
A. 172.28.85.93
B. 172.28.85.95
C. 172.28.85.254
D. 172.28.85.255
Answer: A
Explanation:
 20 / 49
https://www.tunnelsup.com/subnet-calculator/
IP Address: 172.28.85.95/27
Netmask: 255.255.255.224
Network Address: 172.28.85.64
Usable Host Range: 172.28.85.65 - 172.28.85.94
Broadcast Address: 172.28.85.95
38. A large metropolitan city is looking to standardize the ability tor police department laptops to
connect to the city government's VPN The city would like a wireless solution that provides the
largest coverage across the city with a minimal number of transmission towers Latency and
overall bandwidth needs are not high priorities.
Which of the following would BEST meet the city's needs?
A. 5G
B. LTE
C. Wi-Fi 4
D. Wi-Fi 5
E. Wi-Fi 6
Answer: B
39. A client moving into a new office wants the IP network set up to accommodate 412 network-
connected devices that are all on the same subnet. The subnet needs to be as small as
possible.
Which of the following subnet masks should be used to achieve the required result?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.252.0
C. 255.255.254.0
D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: B
Explanation:
40. A newly installed VoIP phone is not getting the DHCP IP address it needs to connect to the
phone system.
Which of the following tasks needs to be completed to allow the phone to operate correctly?
A. Assign the phone's switchport to the correct VLAN
B. Statically assign the phone's gateway address.
C. Configure a route on the VoIP network router.
D. Implement a VoIP gateway
 21 / 49
Answer: A
41. A bank installed a new smart TV to stream online video services, but the smart TV was not
able to connect to the branch Wi-Fi. The next day. a technician was able to connect the TV to
the Wi-Fi, but a bank laptop lost network access at the same time.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?
A. DHCP scope exhaustion
B. AP configuration reset
C. Hidden SSID
D. Channel overlap
Answer: A
Explanation:
DHCP scope exhaustion is the situation when a DHCP server runs out of available IP
addresses to assign to clients. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is
a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other configuration parameters
to clients on a network. A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can
distribute to clients. If the DHCP scope is exhausted, new clients will not be able to obtain an IP
address and connect to the network. This can explain why the smart TV was not able to connect
to the branch Wi-Fi on the first day, and why the bank laptop lost network access on the next
day when the TV was connected. The technician should either increase the size of the DHCP
scope or reduce the lease time of the IP addresses to avoid DHCP scope exhaustion.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], DHCP Scope Exhaustion -
What Is It? How Do You Fix It?
42. A network administrator is connecting two Layer 2 switches in a network These switches
must transfer data in multiple networks.
Which of the following would fulfill this requirement?
A. Jumbo frames
B. 802. IQ tagging
C. Native VLAN
D. Link aggregation
Answer: B
Explanation:
The technique that would fulfill the requirement of transferring data in multiple networks is
802.1Q tagging. 802.1Q tagging is a method of adding a tag or identifier to Ethernet frames that
indicate which VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) they belong to. VLANs are logical
 22 / 49
subdivisions of a network that allow devices in different physical locations or segments to
communicate as if they were in the same network. VLANs improve network performance,
security, and management by reducing broadcast traffic, isolating sensitive data, and grouping
devices by function or department. By using 802.1Q tagging, two Layer 2 switches can
exchange data from multiple VLANs over a single trunk link, without mixing or losing the VLAN
information.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 64; The Official
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 2-12.
43. Which of the following uses the destination IP address to forward packets?
A. A bridge
B. A Layer 2 switch
C. A router
D. A repeater
Answer: C
Explanation:
A router is a device that uses the destination IP address to forward packets between different
networks. A bridge and a Layer 2 switch operate at the data link layer and use MAC addresses
to forward frames within the same network. A repeater is a device that amplifies or regenerates
signals at the physical layer.
44. 11n is a wireless standard that supports up to 600 Mbps data rate and operates in both the
2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands. 802.11n uses multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO)
technology to increase the number of spatial streams and improve the wireless performance
and range. 802.11n meets the requirements of the wireless network design.
Reference: Network+ Study Guide Objective 1.6: Explain the functions of network services.
45. Several WIFI users are reporting the inability to connect to the network. WLAN users on the
guest network are able to access all network resources without any performance issues.
The following table summarizes the findings after a site survey of the area in question:
 23 / 49
Which of the following should a wireless technician do NEXT to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Reconfigure the channels to reduce overlap
B. Replace the omni antennas with directional antennas
C. Update the SSIDs on all the APs
D. Decrease power in AP 3 and AP 4
Answer: A
Explanation:
Based on the site survey table, we can see that AP 2, AP 3, and AP 4 are all broadcasting on
the same channel, which can cause interference and affect performance. Therefore, the next
step a wireless technician should take to troubleshoot this issue is to reconfigure the channels
to reduce overlap. This will help to improve network performance and eliminate any
interference.
Reference:
Network+ N10-007 Certification Exam Objectives, Objective 2.8: Given a scenario, troubleshoot
common wireless problems and perform site surveys.
46. A technician wants to monitor and provide traffic segmentation across the network. The
technician would like to assign each department a specific identifier.
Which of the following will the technicianMOST likely use?
A. Flow control
B. Traffic shaping
C. VLAN tagging
D. Network performance baselines
Answer: C
Explanation:
To monitor and provide traffic segmentation across the network, a technician may use the
concept of VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks). VLANs are a way of dividing a single physical
network into multiple logical networks, each with its own unique identifier or "tag."
By assigning each department a specific VLAN identifier, the technician can segment the
network traffic and ensure that the different departments' traffic is kept separate from one
another. This can help to improve network security, performance, and scalability, as well as
allowing for better monitoring and control of the network traffic.
To implement VLANs, the technician will need to configure VLAN tagging on the network
devices, such as switches and routers, and assign each department's devices to the appropriate
VLAN. The technician may also need to configure VLAN trunking to allow the different VLANs to
communicate with each other.
 24 / 49
By using VLANs, the technician can effectively monitor and segment the network traffic,
providing better control and visibility into the network.
47. A technician received a report that some users in a large, 30-floor building are having
intermittent connectivity issues. Users on each floor have stable connectivity, but do not have
connectivity to other floors.
Which of the following devices is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. User devices
B. Edge devices
C. Access switch
D. Core switch
Answer: D
Explanation:
A core switch is the most likely device causing the issue where users on each floor have stable
connectivity, but do not have connectivity to other floors. A core switch is a high-performance
switch that connects multiple access switches in a network. An access switch is a switch that
connects end devices, such as computers and printers, to the network. A core switch acts as
the backbone of the network, providing interconnection and routing between different subnets or
VLANs. If the core switch is malfunctioning or misconfigured, it can prevent communication
between different segments of the network, resulting in intermittent connectivity issues.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Core Switch vs Access Switch:
What Are the Differences?
48. An administrator is setting up a multicast server on a network, but the firewall seems to be
dropping the traffic.
After logging in to the device, me administrator sees me following entries:
Which of the following firewall rules is MOST likely causing the issue?
A. Rule 1
B. Rule 2
 25 / 49
C. Rule 3
D. Rule 4
Answer: A
49. A network device is configured to send critical events to a syslog server; however, the
following alerts are not being received:
Severity 5 LINK-UPDOWN: Interface 1/1, changed state to down
Severity 5 LINK-UPDOWN: Interface 1/3, changed state to down
Which of the following describes the reason why the events are not being received?
A. The network device is not configured to log that level to the syslog server
B. The network device was down and could not send the event
C. The syslog server is not compatible with the network device
D. The syslog server did not have the correct MIB loaded to receive the message
Answer: A
Explanation:
The reason why the alerts are not being received is that the network device is not configured to
log that level to the syslog server. The severity level for the events may need to be adjusted in
order for them to be sent to the syslog server.
Reference: Network+ Certification Study Guide, Chapter 8: Network Troubleshooting
50. Which of the following connector types would have the MOST flexibility?
A. SFP
B. BNC
C. LC
D. RJ45
Answer: A
Explanation:
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable) is a connector type that has the most flexibility. It is a hot-
swappable transceiver that can support different speeds, distances, and media types depending
on the module inserted. It can be used for both copper and fiber connections and supports
various protocols such as Ethernet, Fibre Channel, and SONET.
Reference: https://www.fs.com/what-is-sfp-transceiver-aid-11.html
51. A SQL server connects over port:
A. 445.
B. 995
 26 / 49
C. 1433.
D. 1521.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A SQL server connects over port 1433. Port numbers are used to identify specific applications
or services on a network device. Port 1433 is the default port for Microsoft SQL Server, which is
a relational database management system that uses SQL (Structured Query Language) to store
and manipulate data.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 147; The Official
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 6-4.
52. A network engineer is designing a wireless network that has the following requirements:
• Network speed must be higher than 100Mbps
• Must use the 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands
Which of the following 802.11 standards should the engineer select?
A. 802. lla
B. 802.11b
C. 802. 11g
D. 802.11 n
Answer: D
Explanation:
53. Which of the following fouling protocols is generally used by major ISPs for handing large-
scale internet traffic?
A. RIP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
Answer: D
54. A customer has an attached USB printer that needs to be shared with other users. The
desktop team set up printer sharing. Now, the network technician needs to obtain the necessary
information about the PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the printer.
Which of the following commands should the technician use to get the required information?
(Select TWO).
A. arp
B. route
 27 / 49
C. netstat
D. tcpdump
E. hostname
F. ipconfig
Answer: E, F
Explanation:
The hostname and ipconfig commands should be used to get the required information about the
PC and share it with other users so they can connect to the printer. The hostname command
displays the name of the computer on a network. The ipconfig command displays the IP
configuration of the computer, including its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS
servers. These information are necessary for other users to locate and connect to the shared
printer on the network. For example, other users can use the UNC path \\hostname\printername
or \\ipaddress\printername to access the shared printer.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], How to Share a Printer in
Windows 10
55. A network technician needs to select an AP that will support at least 1.3Gbps and 5GHz
only.
Which of the following wireless standards must the AP support to meet the requirements?
A. B
B. AC
C. AX
D. N
E. G
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wireless AC is a wireless standard that supports up to 1.3Gbps data rate and operates in the
5GHz frequency band only. Wireless AC is also backward compatible with wireless A and N
devices that use the 5GHz band. Wireless AC is suitable for high-performance applications such
as HD video streaming and online gaming.
Reference: Network+ Study Guide Objective 2.2: Explain the purposes and properties of routing
and switching. Subobjective: Wireless standards and their characteristics.
56. A network engineer is investigating reports of poor network performance. Upon reviewing a
report, the engineer finds hundreds of CRC errors on an interface.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of these errors?
 28 / 49
A. A bad wire on the Cat 5e cable
B. The wrong VLAN assignment to the switchport
C. A misconfigured QoS setting on the router
D. Both sides of the switch trunk set to full duplex
Answer: A
57. A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity performance issue. As part of the
troubleshooting process, the administrator performs a traceout from the client to the server, and
also from the server to the client. Whilecomparing the outputs, the administrator notes they
show different hops between the hosts.
Which of the following BEST explains these findings?
A. Asymmetric routing
B. A routing loop
C. A switch loop
D. An incorrect gateway
Answer: C
58. A network engineer is investigating reports of poor performance on a videoconferencing
application. Upon reviewing the report, the engineer finds that available bandwidth at the WAN
connection is low.
Which Of the following is the MOST appropriate mechanism to handle this issue?
A. Traffic shaping
B. Flow control
C. NetFIow
D. Link aggregation
Answer: A
Explanation:
Traffic shaping is a congestion management method that regulates network data transfer by
delaying the flow of less important or less desired packets1. Traffic shaping can help to improve
the performance of a videoconferencing application by prioritizing its packets over other types of
traffic and smoothing out traffic bursts. Traffic shaping can also help to avoid packet loss and
ensure fair allocation of bandwidth among different applications or users.
Flow control is a mechanism that prevents a sender from overwhelming a receiver with more
data than it can handle. Flow control can help to avoid buffer overflow and data loss, but it does
not prioritize different types of traffic or smooth out traffic bursts. Flow control operates at the
data link layer or the transport layer, while traffic shaping operates at the network layer or
 29 / 49
above.
NetFlow is a protocol that collects and analyzes network traffic data for monitoring and
troubleshooting purposes2. NetFlow can help to identify the sources, destinations, volumes, and
types of traffic on a network, but it does not regulate or shape the traffic flow. NetFlow operates
at the network layer or above.
Link aggregation is a technique that combines multiple physical links into one logical link for
increased bandwidth, redundancy, and load balancing. Link aggregation can help to improve
the performance of a videoconferencing application by providing more available bandwidth at
the WAN connection, but it does not prioritize different types of traffic or smooth out traffic
bursts. Link aggregation operates at the data link layer.
59. Which of the following record types would be used to define where SIP is found?
A. SRV
B. CNAME
C. A
D. MX
Answer: C
Explanation:
The record type that would be used to define where SIP (Session Initiation Protocol) is found is
A (Address). A record is a type of DNS (Domain Name System) record that maps a domain
name to an IPv4 address. SIP is a protocol that enables voice over IP (VoIP) communication,
such as voice calls or video conferencing. SIP uses domain names to identify endpoints or
servers involved in a communication session. Therefore, an A record is needed to resolve the
domain name of a SIP endpoint or server to its IPv4 address.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 154; The Official
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 6-8.
60. Which or the following devices and encapsulations are found at me data link layer? (Select
TWO)
A. Session
B. Frame
C. Firewall
D. Switch
E. Packet
F. Router
Answer: B, D
 30 / 49
Explanation:
The data link layer is responsible for defining the format of data on the network and providing
physical transmission of data. Devices that operate at this layer include switches and network
interface cards (NICs). Encapsulations that are used at this layer include frames, which are
units of data that contain a header, payload, and trailer. Frames are used to identify the source
and destination of data on the network and to perform error detection.
Reference: CompTIA Network+
N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 9; The Official CompTIA Network+ Student Guide
(Exam N10-008), page 1-6.
61. According to troubleshooting methodology, which of the following should the technician do
NEXT after determining the most likely probable cause of an issue?
A. Establish a plan of action to resolve the issue and identify potential effects
B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures
C. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary
D. Test the theory to determine the cause
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to troubleshooting methodology, after determining the most likely probable cause of
an issue, the next step is to establish a plan of action to resolve the issue and identify potential
effects. This step involves defining the steps needed to implement a solution, considering the
possible consequences of each step, and obtaining approval from relevant stakeholders if
necessary.
Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-
n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-comptia-guide-to-it-
troubleshooting
62. A technician knows the MAC address of a device and is attempting to find the device's IP
address.
Which of the following should the technician look at to find the IP address? (Select TWO).
A. ARP table
B. DHCP leases
C. IP route table
D. DNS cache
E. MAC address table
F. STP topology
 31 / 49
Answer: B, E
63. A local firm has hired a consulting company to clean up its IT infrastructure. The consulting
company notices remote printing is accomplished by port forwarding via publicly accessible IPs
through the firm's firewall.
Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate way to enable secure remote printing?
A. SSH
B. VPN
C. Telnet
D. SSL
Answer: B
Explanation:
VPN (Virtual Private Network) is the most appropriate way to enable secure remote printing.
VPN is a technology that creates a secure and encrypted tunnel over a public network such as
the Internet. It allows remote users or sites to access a private network as if they were directly
connected to it. VPN can be used for various purposes such as accessing corporate resources,
bypassing geo-restrictions, or enhancing privacy and security. VPN can also be used for remote
printing by allowing users to connect to a printer on the private network and send print jobs
securely over the VPN tunnel.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security-vpn/ipsec-negotiation-ike-
protocols/14106-how-vpn-works.html
64. The Chief Executive Officer of a company wants to ensure business operations are not
disrupted in the event of a disaster. The solution must have fully redundant equipment, real-time
synchronization, and zero data loss.
Which Of the following should be prepared?
A. Cloud site
B. Warm site
C. Hot site
D. Cold site
Answer: C
Explanation:
A hot site is a backup site that is fully equipped and ready to take over the operations of the
primary site in the event of a disaster. A hot site has real-time synchronization with the primary
site and can provide zero data loss. A hot site is the most expensive and reliable option for
disaster recovery.
 32 / 49
Reference: Network+ Study Guide Objective 5.3: Explain common scanning, monitoring and
patching processes and summarize their expected outputs.
65. A network technician is manually configuring the network settings for a new device and is
told the
network block is 192.168.0.0/20.
Which of the following subnets should the technician use?
A. 255.255.128.0
B. 255.255.192.0
C. 255.255.240.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Answer: C
Explanation:
A subnet mask is a binary number that indicates which bits of an IP address belong to the
network portion and which bits belong to the host portion. A slash notation (/n) indicates how
many bits are used for the network portion. A /20 notation means that 20 bits are used for the
network portion and 12 bits are used for the host portion. To convert /20 to a dotted decimal
notation, we need to write 20 ones followed by 12 zeros in binary and then divide them into fouroctets separated by dots. This gives us 11111111.11111111.11110000.00000000 or
255.255.240.0 in decimal.
Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-
n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.techopedia.com/definition/950/subnet-mask
66. A corporate client is experiencing global system outages. The IT team has identified multiple
potential underlying causes throughout the enterprise Each team member has been assigned
an area to trouble shoot.
Which of the following approaches is being used?
A. Divide-and-conquer
B. Top-to-bottom
C. Bottom-to-top
D. Determine if anything changed
Answer: A
67. Which of the following attacks encrypts user data and requires a proper backup
implementation to recover?
A. DDoS
 33 / 49
B. Phishing
C. Ransomware
D. MAC spoofing
Answer: C
Explanation:
Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts user data and demands a ransom for its
decryption. Ransomware can prevent users from accessing their files and applications, and
cause data loss or corruption. A proper backup implementation is essential to recover from a
ransomware attack, as it can help restore the encrypted data without paying the ransom or
relying on the attackers’ decryption key.
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ransomware
68. A company is designing a SAN and would like to use STP as its medium for communication.
Which of the following protocols would BEST suit me company's needs?
A. SFTP
B. Fibre Channel
C. iSCSI
D. FTP
Answer: B
Explanation:
A SAN also employs a series of protocols enabling software to communicate or prepare data for
storage. The most common protocol is the Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP), which maps SCSI
commands over FC technology. The iSCSI SANs will employ an iSCSI protocol that maps SCSI
commands over TCP/IP.
STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a protocol used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks, and it is
not a medium for communication in a storage area network (SAN). However, Fibre Channel is a
protocol that is specifically designed for high-speed data transfer in SAN environments. It is a
dedicated channel technology that provides high throughput and low latency, making it ideal for
SANs. Therefore, Fibre Channel would be the best protocol for the company to use for its SAN.
SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol), iSCSI (Internet Small Computer System Interface), and
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) are protocols used for transferring files over a network and are not
suitable for use in a SAN environment.
69. An organization is interested in purchasing a backup solution that supports the
organization's goals.
Which of the following concepts would specify the maximum duration that a given service can
 34 / 49
be down before impacting operations?
A. MTTR
B. RTO
C. MTBF
D. RPO
Answer: B
Explanation:
The maximum duration that a given service can be down before it impacts operations is often
referred to as the Recovery Time Objective (RTO). RTO is a key consideration in any backup
and disaster recovery plan, as it determines how quickly the organization needs to be able to
recover from a disruption or failure. It is typically expressed in terms of time, and it helps to
inform the design and implementation of the backup solution. For example, if an organization
has a critical service that must be available 24/7, it may have a very low RTO, requiring that the
service be restored within a matter of minutes or even seconds. On the other hand, if the
service can be down for a longer period of time without significantly impacting operations, the
organization may have a higher RTO. When selecting a backup solution, it is important to
consider the organization's RTO requirements and ensure that the solution is capable of
meeting those needs. A solution that does not meet the organization's RTO requirements may
not be sufficient to ensure the availability of critical services in the event of a disruption or
failure.
70. A company wants to set up a backup data center that can become active during a disaster.
The site needs to contain network equipment and connectivity.
Which of the following strategies should the company employ?
A. Active-active
B. Warm
C. Cold
D. Cloud
Answer: B
Explanation:
Active-active refers to more than one NIC being active at the same time. In my opinion, this
question is referring to a recovery site (hot, warm, cold, cloud)
71. Which of the following is a valid alternative to maintain a deployed proxy technology while
saving physical space in the data center by moving the network service to the virtualization
infrastructure?
 35 / 49
A. NFV
B. SDWAN
C. Networking as code
D. VIP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The valid alternative to maintain a deployed proxy technology while saving physical space in the
data center by moving the network service to the virtualization infrastructure is NFV (Network
Function Virtualization). NFV is a technique that allows network functions, such as proxies,
firewalls, routers, or load balancers, to be implemented as software applications running on
virtual machines or containers. NFV reduces the need for dedicated hardware devices and
improves scalability and flexibility of network services.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 440; The Official
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 16-11.
NFV can be used to virtualize a wide variety of network functions, including proxy servers. By
virtualizing proxy servers, organizations can save physical space in the data center and improve
the scalability and efficiency of their networks.
To virtualize a proxy server using NFV, an organization would need to deploy a virtualization
platform, such as VMware ESXi or Microsoft Hyper-V. The organization would then need to
install a virtual proxy server appliance on the virtualization platform.
Once the virtual proxy server appliance is installed, it can be configured and used just like a
physical proxy server.
NFV is a relatively new technology, but it is quickly gaining popularity as organizations look for
ways to improve the efficiency and scalability of their networks.
72. A customer called the help desk to report a network issue. The customer recently added a
hub between the switch and the router in order to duplicate the traffic flow to a logging device.
After adding the hub, all the Other network components that were connected to the switch
slowed more than expected.
Which Of the following is the MOST likely cause Of the issue?
A. Duplex mismatch
B. Flow control failure
C. STP malfunction
D. 802.1Q disabled
Answer: A
Explanation:
 36 / 49
A duplex mismatch is a situation where two devices on a network have different duplex settings,
such as full-duplex or half-duplex. Full-duplex means that a device can send and receive data
simultaneously, while half-duplex means that a device can only send or receive data at a time. A
duplex mismatch can cause performance issues, such as collisions, errors, or slow throughput.
In this scenario, the customer added a hub between the switch and the router. A hub is a device
that operates at half-duplex and broadcasts all traffic to all ports. A switch and a router are
devices that operate at full-duplex and forward traffic to specific ports. Therefore, adding a hub
between the switch and the router can cause a duplex mismatch and slow down all the other
network components that were connected to the switch.
Reference:
https://www.comparitech.com/net-admin/hub-vs-switch-vs-router/
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/ethernet/10561-3.html
73. A Fortune 500 firm is deciding On the kind or data center equipment to install given its five-
year budget Outlook. The Chief Information comparing equipment based on the life expectancy
Of different models.
Which Of the followingconcepts BEST represents this metric?
A. MTBF
B. MTRR
C. RPO
D. RTO
Answer: A
74. Which of the following issues are present with RIPv2? (Select TWO).
A. Route poisoning
B. Time to converge
C. Scalability
D. Unicast
E. Adjacent neighbors
F. Maximum transmission unit
Answer: BC
Explanation:
The disadvantages of RIP (Routing Information Protocol) include the following.
---Outdated, insecure, and slow. This is your parents' protocol. It was a thing before the Web
was born.
---The more well-known problem of the 15 hop limitation in which data must travel
 37 / 49
---Convergence time is terrible for information propagation in a network
---Metrics. It determines the number of hops from source to destination, and gives no regard to
other factors when determining the best path for data to travel
---Overhead. A good example would be routing tables. These are broadcast at half-minute
intervals to other routers regardless of whether the data has changed or not. It's essentially like
those old cartoons where the town guard in the walled city cries out, '10 o' the clock and all is
well!'.
RIPv2 introduced more security and reduced broadcast traffic, which is relevant for some
available answers here.
75. A technician is installing a new fiber connection to a network device in a datacenter. The
connection from the device to the switch also traverses a patch panel connection.
The chain of connections is in the following order:
Device
LC/LC patch cable
Patch panel
Cross-connect fiber cable
Patch panel
LC/LC patch cable
Switch
The connection is not working. The technician has changed both patch cables with known
working patch cables. The device had been tested and was working properly before being
installed.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. TX/RX is reversed
B. An incorrect cable was used
C. The device failed during installation
D. Attenuation is occurring
Answer: A
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the issue where the fiber connection from a device to a switch is not
working is that the TX/RX (transmit/receive) is reversed. When connecting fiber optic cables, it
is important to ensure that the TX of one device is connected to the RX of the other device and
vice versa. If the TX/RX is reversed, data cannot be transmitted successfully.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ Certification Study Guide, Exam N10-007, Fourth Edition, Chapter 5:
 38 / 49
Network Operations, Objective 5.1: Given a scenario, use appropriate documentation and
diagrams to manage the network.
76. A network administrator is installing a wireless network at a client’s office.
Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards would be BEST to use for multiple simultaneous
client access?
A. CDMA
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. GSM
Answer: C
Explanation:
CSMA/CA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance) is an IEEE 802.11 standard
that would be best to use for multiple simultaneous client access on a wireless network.
CSMA/CA is a media access control method that allows multiple devices to share the same
wireless channel without causing collisions or interference. It works by having each device
sense the channel before transmitting data and waiting for an acknowledgment from the
receiver after each transmission. If the channel is busy or no acknowledgment is received, the
device will back off and retry later with a random delay.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-
wlan/82068-csma-ca.html
77. Which of the following refers to a weakness in a mechanism or technical process?
A. Vulnerability
B. Risk
C. Exploit
D. Threat
Answer: A
Explanation:
The term that refers to a weakness in a mechanism or technical process is vulnerability. A
vulnerability is a flaw or gap in a system’s security that can be exploited by an attacker to gain
unauthorized access, compromise data, or cause damage. A vulnerability can be caused by
design errors, configuration errors, software bugs, human errors, or environmental factors. For
example, an outdated software version that has known security holes is a vulnerability that can
be exploited by malware or hackers.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 342; The Official
 39 / 49
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 13-7.
78. A firewall administrator is implementing a rule that directs HTTP traffic to an internal server
listening on a non-standard socket.
Which of the following types of rules is the administrator implementing?
A. NAT
B. PAT
C. STP
D. SNAT
E. ARP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The firewall administrator is implementing a PAT (Port Address Translation) rule that directs
HTTP traffic to an internal server listening on a non-standard socket. PAT is a type of NAT
(Network Address Translation) that allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address
by using different port numbers. PAT can also be used to redirect traffic from one port to
another port on the same or different IP address. This can be useful for security or load
balancing purposes. For example, a firewall administrator can configure a PAT rule that
redirects HTTP traffic (port 80) from the public IP address of the firewall to an internal server
that listens on a non-standard port (such as 8080) on its private IP address.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/network-address-translation-
nat/13772-12.html
79. Which of the following can be used to limit the ability of devices to perform only HTTPS
connections to an internet update server without exposing the devices to the public internet?
A. Allow connections only to an internal proxy server.
B. Deploy an IDS system and place it in line with the traffic.
C. Create a screened network and move the devices to it.
D. Use a host-based network firewall on each device.
Answer: A
Explanation:
An internal proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary between internal devices and
external servers on the internet. An internal proxy server can be used to limit the ability of
devices to perform only HTTPS connections to an internet update server by filtering and
forwarding the requests and responses based on predefined rules or policies. An internal proxy
server can also prevent the devices from being exposed to the public internet by hiding their IP
 40 / 49
addresses and providing a layer of security and privacy.
80. Which of the following has the capability to centrally manage configuration, logging, and
firmware versioning for distributed devices?
A. WLAN controller
B. Load balancer
C. SIEM solution
D. Syslog server
Answer: A
Explanation:
A WLAN controller is a device that manages and controls multiple wireless access points
(WAPs) in a wireless LAN (WLAN). A WLAN controller has the capability to centrally manage
configuration, logging, and firmware versioning for distributed WAPs. A WLAN controller can
also provide load balancing, security, and quality of service (QoS) for the WLAN.
Reference: Network+ Study Guide Objective 3.1: Explain the purposes and use cases for
advanced networking devices.
81. After installing a new wireless access point, an engineer tests the device and sees that it is
not performing at the rated speeds.
Which of the following should the engineer do to troubleshoot the issue? (Select two).
A. Ensure a bottleneck is not coming from other devices on the network.
B. Install the latest firmware for the device.
C. Create a new VLAN for the access point.
D. Make sure the SSID is not longer than 16 characters.
E. Configure the AP in autonomous mode.
F. Install a wireless LAN controller.
Answer: AB
Explanation:
One possible cause of poor wireless performance is a bottleneck in the network, which means
that other devices or applications are consuming too much bandwidth or resources andlimiting
the speed of the wireless access point. To troubleshoot this issue, the engineer should ensure
that there is no congestion or interference from other devices on the network, such as wired
clients, servers, routers, switches, or other wireless access points. The engineer can use tools
such as network analyzers, bandwidth monitors, or ping tests to check the network traffic and
latency12.
Another possible cause of poor wireless performance is outdated firmware on the device, which
 41 / 49
may contain bugs or vulnerabilities that affect the functionality or security of the wireless access
point. To troubleshoot this issue, the engineer should install the latest firmware for the device
from the manufacturer’s website or support portal. The engineer should follow the instructions
carefully and backup the configuration before updating the firmware. The engineer can also
check the release notes or changelog of the firmware to see if there are any improvements or
fixes related to the wireless performance3.
The other options are not relevant to troubleshooting poor wireless performance. Creating a
new VLAN for the access point may help with network segmentation or security, but it will not
improve the speed of the wireless connection. Making sure the SSID is not longer than 16
characters may help with compatibility or readability, but it will not affect the wireless
performance. Configuring the AP in autonomous mode may give more control or flexibility to the
engineer, but it will not enhance the wireless speed. Installing a wireless LAN controller may
help with managing multiple access points or deploying advanced features, but it will not
increase the wireless performance.
82. A consultant is working with two international companies. The companies will be sharing
cloud resources for a project.
Which of the following documents would provide an agreement on how to utilize the resources?
A. MOU
B. NDA
C. AUP
D. SLA
Answer: A
Explanation:
A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a document that describes an agreement between
two or more parties on how to utilize shared resources for a project. An MOU is not legally
binding, but it outlines the expectations and responsibilities of each party involved in the
collaboration. An MOU can be used when two international companies want to share cloud
resources for a project without creating a formal contract.
Reference: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/network-n10-008-study-guide (page 405)
83. A technician is deploying a new SSID for an industrial control system. The control devices
require the network to use encryption that employs TKIP and a symmetrical password to
connect.
Which of the following should the technician configure to ensure compatibility with the control
devices?
 42 / 49
A. WPA2-Enterprise
B. WPA-Enterprise
C. WPA-PSK
D. WPA2-PSK
Answer: C
Explanation:
"WPA uses Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) for enhanced encryption. TKIP uses RC4 for
the encryption algorithm, and the CompTIA Network+ exam may reference TKIP-RC4 in a
discussion of wireless."
" WPA2 uses Counter Mode with Cipher Block Chaining Message Authentication Code Protocol
(CCMP) for integrity checking and Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) for encryption. On the
Network+ exam, you might find this referenced as simply CCMP-AES"
84. A user from a remote office is reporting slow file transfers.
Which of the following tools will an engineer MOST likely use to get detailed measurement
data?
A. Packet capture
B. IPerf
C. SIEM log review
D. Internet speed test
Answer: B
Explanation:
An engineer will most likely use IPerf to get detailed measurement data about the user's slow
file transfers. IPerf is a tool used for measuring network performance and bandwidth, and it can
be used to measure the speed and throughput of file transfers from the remote office. It can also
provide detailed information about the latency and jitter of the connection, which can be used to
troubleshoot the slow file transfers.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Study Manual (Chapter 10, Page 214).
85. A network engineer is investigating reports of poor network performance. Upon reviewing a
report, the engineer finds that jitter at the office is greater than 10ms on the only WAN
connection available.
Which of the following would be MOST affected by this statistic?
A. A VoIP sales call with a customer
B. An in-office video call with a coworker
C. Routing table from the ISP
 43 / 49
D. Firewall CPU processing time
Answer: A
Explanation:
A VoIP sales call with a customer would be most affected by jitter greater than 10ms on the
WAN connection. Jitter is the variation in delay of packets arriving at the destination. It can
cause choppy or distorted audio quality for VoIP applications, especially over WAN links that
have limited bandwidth and high latency. The recommended jitter for VoIP is less than 10ms.
Reference: https://www.voip-info.org/voip-jitter/
86. Which of the following systems would MOST likely be found in a screened subnet?
A. RADIUS
B. FTP
C. SQL
D. LDAP
Answer: B
Explanation:
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a system that would most likely be found in a screened subnet. A
screened subnet, or triple-homed firewall, is a network architecture where a single firewall is
used with three network interfaces. It provides additional protection from outside cyber attacks
by adding a perimeter network to isolate or separate the internal network from the public-facing
internet1. A screened subnet typically hosts systems that need to be accessed by both internal
and external users, such as web servers, email servers, or FTP servers.
Reference: https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/screened-subnet#:~:text=A
screened subnet%2C or triple-homed firewall%2C refers to,a perimeter network to isolate or
sepa rate the 1
87. A network technician is having issues connecting an loT sensor to the internet The WLAN
settings were enabled via a custom command line, and a proper IP address assignment was
received on the wireless interlace. However, when trying to connect to the internet, only HTTP
redirections are being received when data Is requested.
Which of the following will point to the root cause of the Issue?
A. Verifying if an encryption protocol mismatch exists.
B. Verifying If a captive portal is active for the WLAN.
C. Verifying the minimum RSSI for operation in the device's documentation
D. Verifying EIRP power settings on the access point.
Answer: C
 44 / 49
Explanation:
A captive portal is a web page that is displayed to a user before they can access the internet or
other network resources. This is often used in public or guest networks to present users with a
login or terms and conditions page before they can access the internet. If a captive portal is
active on the WLAN, it would explain why the IoT sensor is only receiving HTTP redirections
when trying to connect to the internet.
88. Which of the following focuses on application delivery?
A. DaaS
B. laaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Answer: C
Explanation:
SaaS is the cloud computing model that focuses on application delivery. SaaS stands for
Software as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides software applications
over the internet. SaaS allows customers to access and use software applications without
installing or maintaining them on their own devices or servers. SaaS offers advantages such as
scalability, accessibility, compatibility, and cost-effectiveness. Customers can use SaaS
applications on demand and pay only for what they use.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is Software as a Service
(SaaS)? | IBM
89. A network technician is selecting new network hardware, and availability is the main
concern.
Which of the following availability concepts should the technicianconsider?
A. RTO
B. MTTR
C. MTBF
D. RPO
Answer: A
Explanation:
The availability concept that the network technician should consider when selecting new
network hardware is RTO (Recovery Time Objective). RTO is a metric that defines the
maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption or failure. RTO is
based on the impact and cost of downtime for the business and its customers. RTO helps
 45 / 49
determine the level of redundancy and backup needed for network hardware to ensure high
availability and minimize downtime.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 346; The Official
CompTIA Network+ Student Guide (Exam N10-008), page 13-9.
90. A network field technician is installing and configuring a secure wireless network. The
technician performs a site survey.
Which of the following documents would MOST likely be created as a result of the site survey?
A. Physical diagram
B. Heat map
C. Asset list
D. Device map
Answer: B
Explanation:
A heat map would most likely be created as a result of the site survey. A heat map is a graphical
representation of the wireless signal strength and coverage in a given area. It can show the
location of APs, antennas, walls, obstacles, interference sources, and dead zones. It can help
with planning, optimizing, and troubleshooting wireless networks.
Reference: https://www.netspotapp.com/what-is-a-wifi-heatmap.html
91. Which of the following protocols can be used to change device configurations via encrypted
and authenticated sessions? (Select TWO).
A. SNMPv3
B. SSh
C. Telnet
D. IPSec
E. ESP
F. Syslog
Answer: BD
92. Which of the following ports is a secure protocol?
A. 20
B. 23
C. 443
D. 445
Answer: C
 46 / 49
Explanation:
This is the port number for HTTPS, which stands for Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure.
HTTPS is a secure version of HTTP, which is the protocol used to communicate between web
browsers and web servers. HTTPS encrypts the data sent and received using SSL/TLS, which
are cryptographic protocols that provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. HTTPS is
commonly used for online transactions, such as banking and shopping, where security and
privacy are important
93. Which of the following layers is where TCP/IP port numbers identify which network
application is receiving the packet and where it is applied?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
E. 7
Answer: B
Explanation:
Layer 4 is where TCP/IP port numbers identify which network application is receiving the packet
and where it is applied. Layer 4 is also known as the transport layer in the TCP/IP model or the
OSI model. The transport layer is responsible for providing reliable or unreliable end-to-end data
transmission between hosts on a network. The transport layer uses port numbers to identify and
multiplex different applications or processes that communicate over the network. Port numbers
are 16-bit numbers that range from 0 to 65535 and are divided into three categories: well-known
ports (0-1023), registered ports (1024-49151), and dynamic ports (49152-65535). Some
examples of well-known port numbers are 80 for HTTP, 443 for HTTPS, and 25 for SMTP.
Reference: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], Transport Layer - an overview |
ScienceDirect Topics
94. A business is using the local cable company to provide Internet access.
Which of the following types of cabling will the cable company MOST likely use from the
demarcation point back to the central office?
A. Multimode
B. Cat 5e
C. RG-6
D. Cat 6
E. 100BASE-T
 47 / 49
Answer: C
Explanation:
RG-6 is a type of coaxial cable that is commonly used by cable companies to provide Internet
access from the demarcation point back to the central office. It has a thicker conductor and
better shielding than RG-59, which is another type of coaxial cable. Multimode and Cat 5e are
types of fiber optic and twisted pair cables respectively, which are not typically used by cable
companies. Cat 6 and 100BASE-T are standards for twisted pair cables, not types of cabling.
95. Two users on a LAN establish a video call.
Which of the following OSI model layers ensures the initiation coordination, and termination of
the call?
A. Session
B. Physical
C. Transport
D. Data link
Answer: A
Explanation:
The OSI model layer that ensures the initiation, coordination, and termination of a video call is
the session layer. The session layer is responsible for establishing, maintaining, and terminating
communication sessions between two devices on a network.
 
More Hot Exams are available.
 48 / 49
https://www.certqueen.com/promotion.asp
350-401 ENCOR Exam Dumps
350-801 CLCOR Exam Dumps
200-301 CCNA Exam Dumps
Powered by TCPDF (www.tcpdf.org)
 49 / 49
https://www.certqueen.com/350-401.html
https://www.certqueen.com/350-801.html
https://www.certqueen.com/200-301.html
http://www.tcpdf.org